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vovangra [49]
3 years ago
9

Question on laplace transform... number 7

Mathematics
1 answer:
irinina [24]3 years ago
4 0
Recall a few known results involving the Laplace transform. Given a function f(t), if the transform exists, then denote it by F(s). We have

\mathcal L_s\left\{e^{ct}f(t)\right\}=\mathcal L_{s-c}\left\{f(t)\right\}=F(s-c)

\mathcal L_s\left\{\displaystyle\int_0^t f(u)\,\mathrm du\right\}=\dfrac{F(s)}s

\mathcal L_s\left\{f'(t)\right\}=sF(s)-f(0)

Let's put all this together by taking the transform of both sides of the ODE:

y'(t)+2e^{-2t}\displaystyle\int_0^te^{2u}y(u)\,\mathrm du=e^{-t}\sin t

\implies \bigg(sY(s)-y(0)\bigg)+2\mathcal L_s\left\{e^{-2t}\displaystyle\int_0^te^{2u}y(u)\,\mathrm du\right\}=\dfrac1{(s+1)^2+1}

Here we use the third fact and immediately compute the transform of the right hand side (I'll leave that up to you).

Now we invoke the first listed fact:

\mathcal L_s\left\{e^{-2t}\displaystyle\int_0^te^{2u}y(u)\,\mathrm du\right\}=\mathcal L_{s+2}\left\{\displaystyle\int_0^te^{2u}y(u)\,\mathrm du\right\}

Let g(u)=e^{2u}y(u). From the second fact, we get

\mathcal L_s\left\{\displaystyle\int_0^tg(u)\,\mathrm du\right\}=\dfrac{G(s)}s\implies\mathcal L_{s+2}\left\{\displaystyle\int_0^tg(u)\,\mathrm du\right\}=\dfrac{G(s+2)}{s+2}

From the first fact, we get

G(s)=\mathcal L_s\left\{e^{2u}y(u)\right\}=Y(s-2)

so we're left with

\dfrac{G(s+2)}{s+2}=\dfrac{Y((s+2)-2)}{s+2}=\dfrac{Y(s)}{s+2}

To summarize, taking the Laplace transform of both sides of the ODE yields

sY(s)+\dfrac{2Y(s)}{s+2}=\dfrac1{(s+1)^2+1}

Isolating Y(s) gives

Y(s)=\dfrac1{\left(s+\frac2{s+2}\right)\left((s+1)^2+1\right)}
Y(s)=\dfrac{s+2}{\left((s+1)^2+1\right)^2}

All that's left is to take the inverse transform. I'll leave that to you as well. You should end up with something resembling

y(t)=\dfrac12(t\cos t-(t+1)\sin t)(\sinh t-\cosh t)
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</u>Both discriminants are equal.<u>
</u>
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