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Sonja [21]
3 years ago
11

Will, who is single and age 50, is employed as a full-time tax accountant at a local manufacturing company where he earns $83,00

0 per year. He participates in a pension plan through his employer. Will also operates a small tax practice in his spare time during tax season and has net Schedule C income of $8,000. He is interested in establishing and contributing to other retirement plans. What options are available to Will?
Business
1 answer:
fenix001 [56]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: The options available to Will include; the Keogh plan, the SIMPLE IRA and the ROTH plan.

Explanation: The Keogh plan is a tax- deferred benefit plan available to self employed individuals or unincorporations.

A Savings Incentive Match Plan for Employees Individual Retirement Account, "SIMPLE IRA" is a tax-deferred retirement plan provided by the employer that allows employees to set aside money and invest it to grow for retirement.

A Roth IRA is an individual retirement account that is generally not taxed upon distribution, provided certain conditions are met.

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DedPeter [7]

Answer:

Monkey do

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
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Consider the following comments about absorption- and variable-costing income statements:
GrogVix [38]

Answer:

E) I, II, and III.

Explanation:

Variable costing can be regarded as a concept of managerial accounting cost

whereby during the period of producing the product there is incurred

manufacturing overhead.

Absorption costing income statement, utilize absorption costing when creating income statement. The income statement focus on the cost through sectioning of cost into period cost and product.

It should be noted that

I. A variable-costing income statement discloses a firm's contribution margin.

II. Cost of goods sold on an absorption-costing income statement includes fixed costs.

III. The amount of variable selling and administrative cost is the same on absorption- and variable-costing income statements.

7 0
3 years ago
You will receive $5,000 a year in real terms for the next 5 years. Each payment will be received at the end of the period with t
photoshop1234 [79]

Answer:

$20,229.5

Explanation:

Given:

Amount to be received = $5,000

Time period, n = 5 years

nominal discount rate = 10.725%

inflation rate = 3 percent

Now,

Using the Fischer's relation, we have

1 + Nominal rate = ( 1 + Real rate ) × ( 1 + Inflation )

on substituting the values, we get

( 1 + 10.725% ) = ( 1 + Real rate ) × ( 1 + 3% )

or

1.10725 = ( 1 + Real rate ) × 1.03

or

( 1 + Real rate ) = 1.075

or

Real rate = 1.075 - 1 = 0.075 or 7.5%

Thus,

Present Value of an ordinary annuity that makes $5000 every year payment for 5 years will be calculates as:

Present value = Monthly payment × [\frac{(1-(1+r^{-n})}{r}]

or

Present value =5000\times[\frac{1 - (1 + 0.075)^{-5}}{0.075}]

or

Present value = 5000 × 4.0459

or

Present value = $20,229.5

3 0
3 years ago
MILLS ALLOCATES MANUFACTURING OVERHEAD TO PRODUCTION BASED ON STANDARD DIRECT LABOR HOURS. MILLS REPORTED THE FOLLOWING ACTUAL R
tekilochka [14]

Answer:

1. Compute the variable overhead cost and efficiency variances and fixed overhead cost and volume variances.

  • variable overhead cost variance = $1,000 unfavorable
  • variable efficiency variance = -$1,200 favorable
  • fixed overhead costs = $1,500 unfavorable
  • fixed overhead volume variance = -$100 favorable

2. EXPLAIN (as best you can) why the variances are favorable or unfavorable. Based on cost and efficiency budget standards.

  • variable overhead cost variance is unfavorable because actual variable overhead costs per unit are higher than budgeted.
  • variable efficiency variance is favorable because the company used less direct labor hours than budgeted to produce a higher amount of units (1,600 vs. 2,000).
  • fixed overhead costs are unfavorable because total fixed overhead costs were much higher than budgeted, but most of this variance can be explained by higher output.
  • fixed overhead volume variance are favorable because a higher volume was produced using less hours than budgeted.

Explanation:

Static budget variable overhead $1,200

Actual variable overhead $4,000

Static budget fixed overhead $1,600

Actual fixed overhead $3,100

Static budget direct labor hours 800 hours

Actual direct labor hours 1,600

Static budget number of units 400 units

Actual units produced 1,000

Standard direct labor hours 2 hours per unit

Actual direct labor hours 1.6 per unit

standard variable rate = $1,200 / 400 units = $3 per unit

actual variable rate = $4,000 / 1,000 units = $4 per unit

standard fixed rate = $1,600 / 800 hours = $2 per hour

actual fixed rate = $3,100 / 1,600 hours = $1.9375 per hour

variable overhead cost variance = actual costs - (standard rate x actual units) = $4,000 - ($3 x 1,000) = $1,000 unfavorable

variable efficiency variance = (actual hours x standard rate) - (standard hours x standard rate) = (1,600 × $3) − (2,000 x $3) = $4,800 - $6,000 = -$1,200 favorable

fixed overhead costs = actual overhead costs - budgeted overhead costs = $3,100 - $1,600 = $1,500 unfavorable

fixed overhead volume variance = (actual fixed rate x actual hours) - (standard rate x actual hours) = ($1.9375 x 1,600) - ($ x 1,600) = $3,100 - $3,200 = -$100 favorable

5 0
4 years ago
Gremlin Industries will pay a dividend of $ 1.55 per share this year. It is expected that this dividend will grow by 7​% per yea
sasho [114]

Answer: 14%

Explanation:

We can calculate this using the Gordon Growth Model which looks like this,

P = D1 / r - g

P is the current stock price

D1 is the next dividend

r is the rate of return or the cost of capital

g is the growth rate.

We have all those figures except the cost of capital so making r the subject of the formula we can solve for it. Doing that will make the formula,

r = D/ P + g

r = 1.55 / 22.10 + 0.07

r = 0.1401

r = 14%

14% is the equity cost of capital.

If you need any clarification do react or comment.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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