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marshall27 [118]
3 years ago
9

Pls help this is confusing. also who likes my cursor?​

Mathematics
1 answer:
amm18123 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Here's the solution.

Step-by-step explanation:

Okay so,

12 with an exponent of 5 equals 248832 because you multiply 12*12*12*12*12.

12 with an exponent of 4 equals 20736 because you multiply 12*12*12*12.

Since it's division you use the inverse which is multiplication.

Therefore 248832×20736=5159780352

So 12 with an exponent of what number equals 5159780352?

12 with an exponent of 9.

To check your answer do 5159780352 divided by 248832 which equals 20736.

Therefore your answer would be C.

I hope this helps you understand and your cursor is cool, it's the yin yang symbol, correct? How did you do that?

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Mrac [35]

Answer:

Area of the rhombus ABCD = 16 square units

Step-by-step explanation:

Area of a rhombus = \frac{1}{2}(\text{Diagonal 1})(\text{Diagonal 2})

From the graph attached,

Diagonal 1 = Distance between the points A and C

Diagonal 2 = Distance between the points B and D

Length of a segment between (x₁, y₁) and (x₂, y₂) = \sqrt{(x_2-x_1)^{2}+(y_2-y_1)^2 }

Diagonal 1 (AC) = \sqrt{(4-0)^2+(-1+1)^2} = 4 units

Diagonal 2(BD) = \sqrt{(2-2)^2+(3+5)^2} = 8 units

Now area of the rhombus ABCD = \frac{1}{2}(\text{AC})(\text{BD})

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Therefore, area of the given rhombus is 16 units².

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3 years ago
What is the probability of rolling a four then a three
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Answer:

\frac{1}{36}

Step-by-step explanation:

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the prabability to get 4 in first roll is \frac{1}{6}.

let us assume we rolled the dice for second time again we may get 1,2,3,4,5,6(any of these) the probability to get 3 is

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the probability to get 3 in second roll irrespective of first one is \frac{1}{6}

the probability to get 4 in first time and then 3 is

The probability to occur both events at a time is multiplication of individual probabilities

So,

probablility to get 4 in first roll=\frac{1}{6}

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probability to occur both at a same time is =\frac{1}{6} \times\frac{1}{6}=\frac{1}{36}

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igomit [66]

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