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Svetradugi [14.3K]
3 years ago
13

I need to know the answer

Health
2 answers:
Julli [10]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

d) is the best option

Explanation:

At least it seems like it, hope it helps :)

qaws [65]3 years ago
4 0
Answer D is your best option

I really hope this helps! :)
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2. either hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia

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In the United States what is the percentage of calories most people eat today when compared to 40 years ago
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7 0
3 years ago
How many milliliters o a nonmedicated, lavored syrup base must be added to 1 pint o ranitidine (ZANTAC) syrup, 15 mg/mL, to chan
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Answer:

946.35mL (to 2 decimal places)

Explanation:

Use the formula

C1V1 = C2V2

where C1 is the concentration of the undiluted medication = 15mg/mL

           V1 is the volume of the undiluted medication = 1 pint = 473.176mL (convert pint to mL)

           C2 is the concentration that the diluted medication should have = 5mg/mL

           V2 is the volume of the diluted medication with syrup = ??

C1V1  = C2V2

15mg/mL x 473.176mL = 5mg/mL x V2

<u>15mg/mL x 473.176mL = V2</u>

        5mg/mL

1419.528mL = V2

V2 = 1419.528mL (expected volume of medication + syrup)

Therefore, amount of non-medicated flavored syrup base to be added = 1419.528mL - 473.176mL

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