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Elan Coil [88]
3 years ago
11

Golden Corral charges $11 for a buffet plus $1 for each drink. Western Sizzlin charges $9 for a buffet plus $2 for each drink. W

hich restaurant has the best deal? (I made up these prices!!) 1. Write 2 equations to represent the 2 restaurants. Predict if these equations will be linear of nonlinear (how do you know?). If they are linear will the lines point upward or downward (how do you know?).
Mathematics
2 answers:
Igoryamba3 years ago
8 0
Western Sizzling would be cheaper because with the total meal it would cost $11 while Golden Corral would cost $12 for the total meal.
Veseljchak [2.6K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

see explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

GC = 11B + 1D

WS = 9B + 2D

Linear equations will point downward

Western Sizzlin is the best deal per person because in total it would be $11 and Golden Corral would be $12.

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Answer:

g(-2) = -7

Step-by-step explanation:

To find g(-2), plug -2 into g(x).

g(x) = -4x² + 3x + 15

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erastova [34]

Answer:

The probability is \frac{56!}{64!}

Step-by-step explanation:

We can divide the amount of favourable cases by the total amount of cases.

The total amount of cases is the total amount of ways to put 8 rooks on a chessboard. Since a chessboard has 64 squares, this number is the combinatorial number of 64 with 8, 64 \choose 8 .

For a favourable case, you need one rook on each column, and for each column the correspondent rook should be in a diferent row than the rest of the rooks. A favourable case can be represented by a bijective function  f : A \rightarrow A , with A = {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8}. f(i) = j represents that the rook located in the column i is located in the row j.

Thus, the total of favourable cases is equal to the total amount of bijective functions between a set of 8 elements. This amount is 8!, because we have 8 possibilities for the first column, 7 for the second one, 6 on the third one, and so on.

We can conclude that the probability for 8 rooks not being able to capture themselves is

\frac{8!}{64 \choose 8} = \frac{8!}{\frac{64!}{8!56!}} = \frac{56!}{64!}

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