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yarga [219]
3 years ago
14

21,300 feet = miles

Mathematics
2 answers:
disa [49]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

<h2>About 4 miles</h2>

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the miles value for a given value in feet, divide the given value by 5,280.

\frac{21,300}{5,280} = 4.0340909

4.0340909 = about 4 miles

I'm always happy to help :)

Rudik [331]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

4.034 miles.

Step-by-step explanation:

1 mile is: 5280

21300/5280= 4.034

Hope this helps & best of luck!

Feel free to message me if you need more help! :)

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Si el perímetro de el siguiente paralelogramo mide 80 M cuanto mide la base cuanto mide la altura y cuanto mide el área
topjm [15]

Answer:

<h2>The area of the parallelogram is 300 square meters. Its height (length) is 30 meters and its width is 10 meters.</h2>

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming that the parallelogram is a rectangle, its perimeter would be defined as

P=2(w+l)

Where w is the width and l is the length.

But, P=80 \ m, so

80=2(w+l)\\w+l=40

Which means the sum of its dimensions is 40 meters.

Easily, its dimenions can be 10 meters and 30 meters.

So, its area would be

A= w \times l = 10 \times 30 = 300 \ m^{2}

Therefore, the area of the parallelogram is 300 square meters. Its height (length) is 30 meters and its width is 10 meters.

3 0
4 years ago
Which statement best describes the relation (3, 4), (4, 3), (6, 3), (7, 8), (5, 4)?
Marina CMI [18]

Answer:

i think you should listen to the brain picture for the right answer

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
4 years ago
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Please answer this ASAP
stellarik [79]

9514 1404 393

Explanation:

1. ∠BAC ≅ ∠BCA, BD ≅ BE, ∆BDA and ∆BEC are right triangles . . . . given

2. ∆ABC is isosceles . . . . definition of isosceles triangle

3. BA ≅ BC . . . . definition of isosceles triangle

4. ∆BDA ≅ ∆BEC . . . . HL theorem

5. AC ≅ CE . . . . CPCTC

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What would you tip for a $22 meal if you wanted to leave 15%
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A subset $S \subseteq \mathbb{R}$ is called open if for every $x \in S$, there exists a real number $\epsilon &gt; 0$ such that
const2013 [10]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

REcall that given sets S,T if we want to prove that S\subseteqT, then we need to prove that  for all x that is in S, it is in T.

a) Let (a,b) be a non empty interval and x\in (a,b). Then a<x <b. Let \varepsilon = \min{\min\{b-x, x-a\}}{2} Consider y \in (x-\varepsilon,x+\varepsilon), then

y and

y>x-\varepsilon>x-(x-a) = a.

Then y\in (a,b). Hence, (a,b) is open.

Consider the complement of [a,b] (i.e (a,b)^c).

Then, it is beyond the scope of this answer that

(a,b)^c = (-\infty,a) \cup (b,\infty).

Suppose that x\in (a,b)^c and without loss of generality, suppose that x < a (The same technique applies when x>b). Take \varepsilon = \frac{a-x}{2} and consider y \in (x-\varepsilon,x+\varepsilon). Then

y

Then y \in (-\infty,a). Applying the same argument when x \in (b,\infty) we find that [a,b] is closed.

c) Let I be an arbitrary set of indexes and consider the family of open sets \{A_i\}_{i\in I}. Let [tex]B = \bigcup_{i\in I}A_i. Let x \in B. Then, by detinition there exists an index i_0 such that x\in A_{i_0}. Since A_{i_0} is open, there exists a positive epsilon such that (x-\varepsilon,x+\varepsilon)\subseteq A_{i_0} \subseteq B. Hence, B is open.

d).  Consider the following family of open intervals A_n = (a-\frac{1}{n},b+\frac{1}{n}). Let B = \bigcap_{n=1}^{\infty}A_n. It can be easily proven that

B =[a,b]. Then, the intersection of open intervals doesn't need to be an open interval.

b) Note that for every x \in \mathbb{R} and for every \varepsilon>0 we have that (x-\varepsilon,x+\varepsilon)\subseteq \mathbb{R}. This means that \mathbb{R} is open, and by definition, \emptyset is closed.

Note that the definition of an open set is the following:

if for every x \in S, there exists a real number \epsilon > 0 such that (x-\epsilon,x \epsilon) \subseteq S. This means that if a set is not open, there exists an element x in the set S such that for a especific value of epsilon, the subset (x-epsilon, x + epsilon) is not a proper subset of S. Suppose that S is the empty set, and suppose that S is not open. This would imply, by the definition, that there exists an element in S that contradicts the definition of an open set. But, since S is the empty set, it is a contradiction that it has an element. Hence, it must be true that S (i.e the empty set) is open. Hence \mathbb{R} is also closed, by definition. If you want to prove that this are the only sets that satisfy this property, you must prove that \mathbb{R} is a connected set (this is a topic in topology)

6 0
3 years ago
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