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2 years ago

How do you convert improper fractions to proper fractions

Mathematics

2 answers:

Jobisdone [24]2 years ago

5 0

Answer:

Step- for example, 27/6. The fraction bar means you need to divide 27 by 6.

Divide 27 by 6. The answer is 4, with a remainder of 3. Use the answer as the whole number part of the mixed number, and place the remainder over the original denominator: 4 3/6.

lozanna [386]2 years ago

5 0

You use “top in bottom out” method. Take the improper fraction, let’s use 49/5. First, concert the improper fraction into a decimal by dividing the numerator by the denominator. You should get 9.8. Convert the 9.8 into a mixed number by placing the number to the right of the decimal over 10. Then reduce your fraction. You should get 9 4/5 and that’s your answer

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gavmur [86]

Answer:

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Step by step explanation:

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1 year ago

Which of the following statements is true for all sets A,B and C? Give a proof

ELEN [110]

Answer:

(a) and (b) are not true in general. Refer to the explanations below for counterexamples.

It can be shown that (c) is indeed true.

Step-by-step explanation:

This explanation will use a lot of empty sets $\phi$ just to keep the counterexamples simple.

Note that $A \cap B$ can well be smaller than $A$ . It should be alarming that the question is claiming $A\!$ to be a subset of something that can be smaller than $\! A$ . Here's a counterexample that dramatize this observation:

Consider:

$A = \left\lbrace 1 \right\rbrace$ .
$B = \phi$ (an empty set, same as $\left\lbrace \right\rbrace$ .)
$C = \phi$ (another empty set.)

The intersection of an empty set with another set should still be an empty set:

$A \cap B = \left\lbrace 1\right\rbrace \cap \left\lbrace\right\rbrace = \left\lbrace\right\rbrace$ .

The union of two empty sets should also be an empty set:

$((A \cap B) \cup C) = \left\lbrace\right\rbrace \cup \left\lbrace\right\rbrace = \left\lbrace\right\rbrace$ .

Apparently, the one-element set $A = \left\lbrace 1 \right\rbrace$ isn't a subset of an empty set. $A \not \subseteq ((A\cap B) \cup C)$ . Contradiction.

Consider the same counterexample

$A = \left\lbrace 1 \right\rbrace$ .
$B = \phi$ (an empty set, same as $\left\lbrace \right\rbrace$ .)
$C = \left\lbrace 2 \right\rbrace$ (another empty set.)

Left-hand side:

$(A \cup B) \cap C = \left(\left\lbrace 1 \right\rbrace \cup \left\lbrace \right\rbrace\right) \cap \left\lbrace 2 \right\rbrace\right = \left\lbrace 1 \right\rbrace \cap \left\lbrace 2 \right\rbrace = \left\lbrace \right\rbrace$ .

Right-hand side:

$(A \cap B) \cup C = \left(\left\lbrace 1 \right\rbrace \cap \left\lbrace \right\rbrace\right) \cup \left\lbrace 2 \right\rbrace\right = \left\lbrace \right\rbrace \cup \left\lbrace 2 \right\rbrace = \left\lbrace 2 \right\rbrace$ .

Apparently, the empty set on the left-hand side $\left\lbrace \right\rbrace$ is not the same as the $\left\lbrace 2 \right\rbrace$ on the right-hand side. Contradiction.

Part one: show that left-hand side is a subset of the right-hand side.

Let $x$ be a member of the set on the left-hand side.

$x \in (A \backslash B) \cap C$ .

$\implies x\in A \backslash B$ and $x \in C$ (the right arrow here reads "implies".)

$\implies x \in A$ and $x \not\in B$ and $x \in C$ .

$\implies (x \in A\cap C)$ and $x \not\in B \cap C$ .

$\implies x \in (A \cap C) \backslash (B \cap C)$ .

Note that $x \in (A \backslash B) \cap C$ (set on the left-hand side) implies that $x \in (A \cap C) \backslash (B \cap C)$ (set on the right-hand side.)

Therefore:

$(A \backslash B) \cap C \subseteq (A \cap C) \backslash (B \cap C)$ .

Part two: show that the right-hand side is a subset of the left-hand side. This part is slightly more involved than the first part.

Let $x$ be a member of the set on the right-hand side.

$x \in (A \cap C) \backslash (B \cap C)$ .

$\implies x \in A \cap C$ and $x \not\in B \cap C$ .

Note that $x \not\in B \cap C$ is equivalent to:

$x \not \in B$ , OR
$x \not\in C$ , OR
both $x \not\in B$ AND $x \not \in C$ .

However, $x \in A \cap C$ implies that $x \in A$ AND $x \in C$ .

The fact that $x \in C$ means that the only possibility that $x \not\in B \cap C$ is $x \not \in B$ .

To reiterate: if $x \not \in C$ , then the assumption that $x \in A \cap C$ would not be true any more. Therefore, the only possibility is that $x \not \in B$ .

Therefore, $x \in (A \backslash B)\cap C$ .