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3 years ago

HELP!!!!!!!!! Please P.S. I need the answer ASAP

Mathematics

2 answers:

Alex Ar [27]3 years ago

7 0

I think it is distributive property?

zzz [600]3 years ago

6 0

Step 1 associative property
step 2 subtract 2x from both sides
step 3 add 28 to both sides
step 4 divide 2 on both sides

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Wich function is described by the value in the table

kolbaska11 [484]

The table isn’t shown so I cant tell

3 0

2 years ago

The probability that two people have the same birthday in a room of 20 people is about 41.1%. It turns out that

salantis [7]

Answer:

a) Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we know that:

$X \sim Binom(n=20, p=0.411)$

This random variable represent that two people have the same birthday in just one classroom

b) We can find first the probability that one or more pairs of people share a birthday in ONE class. And we can do this:

$P(X\geq 1 ) = 1-P(X$

And we can find the individual probability:

$P(X=0) = (20C0) (0.411)^0 (1-0.411)^{20-0}=0.0000253$

And then:

$P(X\geq 1 ) = 1-P(X$

And since we want the probability in the 3 classes we can assume independence and we got:

$P= 0.99997^3 = 0.9992$

So then the probability that one or more pairs of people share a birthday in your three classes is approximately 0.9992

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

A Bernoulli trial is "a random experiment with exactly two possible outcomes, "success" and "failure", in which the probability of success is the same every time the experiment is conducted". And this experiment is a particular case of the binomial experiment.

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

Solution to the problem

Part a

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we know that:

$X \sim Binom(n=20, p=0.411)$

This random variable represent that two people have the same birthday in just one classroom

Part b

We can find first the probability that one or more pairs of people share a birthday in ONE class. And we can do this:

$P(X\geq 1 ) = 1-P(X$

And we can find the individual probability:

$P(X=0) = (20C0) (0.411)^0 (1-0.411)^{20-0}=0.0000253$

And then:

$P(X\geq 1 ) = 1-P(X$

And since we want the probability in the 3 classes we can assume independence and we got:

$P= 0.99997^3 = 0.9992$

So then the probability that one or more pairs of people share a birthday in your three classes is approximately 0.9992

4 0

3 years ago

PLEASEE HELP ME!!!!

Svet_ta [14]

The angle would be 35 degrees (the complement is 90-35 = 55 degrees.) Hope this helps!

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

What is equivalent to 9 3/4?

Nata [24]

Step-by-step explanation:

We need to say that $9^{3/4}$ is equivalent to what.

We know that, (3)² = 9

So,

$9^{3/4}=((3)^2)^{3/4}\\\\=3^{3/2}$

We can write $3^{3/2} =3\times 3^{1/2}$

And $3^{1/2}=\sqrt{3}$

So,

$3\times 3^{1/2}=3\sqrt{3}$

So, $9^{3/4}$ is equivalent to $3\sqrt{3}$ .

Hence, this is the required solution.

6 0

2 years ago

I have no idea where to start on either of these problems. Would someone explain the steps to me? My teacher hasn’t gone over th

bazaltina [42]

Answer:

Problem 9: -1/2

Problem 10: 1/5

Step-by-step explanation:

Problem 10: Label the given ln e^(1/5) as y = ln e^(1/5).

Write the identity e = e. Raise the first e to the power y and the second e to the power 1/5 (note that ln e^(1/5) = 1/5). Thus, we have:

e^y = e^(1/5), so that y = 1/5 (answer).

Problem 9: Let y = (log to the base 4 of) ∛1 / ∛8, or

y = (log to the base 4 of) ∛1 / ∛8, or

y = (log to the base 4 of) 1 /2

Write out the obvious:

4 = 4

Raise the first 4 to the power y and raise the second 4 to the power (log to the base 4 of) 1 /2. This results in:

4^y = 1/2. Solve this for y.

Note that 4^(1/2) = 2, so that 4^(-1/2) = 1/2

Thus, y = -1/2

3 0

3 years ago