Answer
Part 1) f(x)⁻¹ = 40 - x/2,500
Part 2) quantity
Explanation
f(x)= 100,000-2,500x
In finding the inverse of F(x) we make x the suject of the formula.
f(x)= 100,000-2,500x
2,500x = 100,000 - f(x)
x = 100,000/2,500 - f(x)/2500
x = 40 - f(x)/2,500
Now interchange x with f(x).
f(x)⁻¹ = 40 - x/2,500
Answer
1) (4,6)
2) (5,5)
3) (2,6)
Step-by-step explanation:
I think it's the last point. (5,4)
ANSWER: the amount an individual earns after subtracting all expenses, taxes and costs.
Well
It is in the form of a/b + b/a = (a sqr + b sqr)ab
Substitute
(Sin sqr theta + cos sqr theta) +2 cos theta + 1. 2 + 2cos theta
———————————————————————— = ————————-
Sin theta(1+cos theta). Sin theta (1 + cos theta)
2(1+ cos theta)/sin theta(1 + cos theta). {1 + cos theta cancelled}
2/sin theta. Hope it helps :}
