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natali 33 [55]
3 years ago
13

Consider an experiment whose sample space consists of a countably infinite number of points. Show that not all points can be equ

ally likely. Can all points have positive probability of occurring?
Mathematics
1 answer:
ella [17]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: if you have infinity points, which i will asume are the events, they cant have the same probability because then the probability will not be normalized, because in graph of prob vs variable, you will se infinite area under the curve if the probability is constant.

And yes, can all points have positive probability of occurring, but besides you medium value (the bell for example) you will see an asintotic decrease to the zero.

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3 years ago
Anybody know the Answer ???
Aliun [14]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
What is 2 1/2 divided by 1/3
olga nikolaevna [1]

Answer:

7 1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

2 1/2 ÷ 1/3

Change the mixed number to an improper fraction

2 1/2 = (2*2+1)/2 = 5/2

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Copy dot flip

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4 years ago
Please help me on this
Stolb23 [73]

Answer:

AX = 14

Step-by-step explanation:

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5 0
3 years ago
True or false: sec^-1(0.5) is undefined. explain your answer
ICE Princess25 [194]

Here we get the statement:

"sec^-1(0.5) is undefined"

And we want to see if this is true or false, so let's use the properties that we know to find that this is false.

Remember that the sec function is defined as:

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Then we will have:

sec^{-1}(x) = (\frac{1}{cos(x)})^{-1} =  cos(x)

Then is really trivial to see that:

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Then we can conclude that the function is not undefined at 0.5, so the statement is false.

Below you can see the graph of the given function, and you will see that it is never undefined.

If you want to learn more, you can read:

brainly.com/question/16453813

6 0
3 years ago
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