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3 years ago

Write the equation of the line that passes through points (3,5) and (5,3)

Mathematics

1 answer:

Citrus2011 [14]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

6AM the best of your eyebrows to make it a new thing and t it already does abm have the right kind to make it a better t and more important for you but you will need more of your time and t for your work out there to make your own business easier for you than to make your life a new one you will have the best of luck and your life is not going on for a year to come back in a week to a time when u are a member or not a new person and t you want your life and

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On an architects blueprint, 1 inch corresponds to 9 feet. If an exterior wall is 60 feet long, find how long the blueprint measu

andre [41]

Answer:

x = 6.67 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

Set upa s a proportion

x/60 = 1/9

x = 1/9 * 60

x = 6.67 inches

6 0

3 years ago

Simplify this exponential expression:<br><br> (-49) 2/5

ioda

Answer:

I think it is 12 4/5

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helps if not let me now

4 0

2 years ago

Let the number of chocolate chips in a certain type of cookie have a Poisson distribution. We want the probability that a cookie

ludmilkaskok [199]

Answer:

$\lambda \geq 6.63835$

Step-by-step explanation:

The Poisson Distribution is "a discrete probability distribution that expresses the probability of a given number of events occurring in a fixed interval of time or space if these events occur with a known constant mean rate and independently of the time since the last event".

Let X the random variable that represent the number of chocolate chips in a certain type of cookie. We know that $X \sim Poisson(\lambda)$

The probability mass function for the random variable is given by:

$f(x)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^x}{x!} , x=0,1,2,3,4,...$

And f(x)=0 for other case.

For this distribution the expected value is the same parameter $\lambda$

$E(X)=\mu =\lambda$

On this case we are interested on the probability of having at least two chocolate chips, and using the complement rule we have this:

$P(X\geq 2)=1-P(X$

Using the pmf we can find the individual probabilities like this:

$P(X=0)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^0}{0!}=e^{-\lambda}$

$P(X=1)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^1}{1!}=\lambda e^{-\lambda}$

And replacing we have this:

$P(X\geq 2)=1-[P(X=0)+P(X=1)]=1-[e^{-\lambda} +\lambda e^{-\lambda}[]$

$P(X\geq 2)=1-e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)$

And we want this probability that at least of 99%, so we can set upt the following inequality:

$P(X\geq 2)=1-e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)\geq 0.99$

And now we can solve for $\lambda$

$0.01 \geq e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)$

Applying natural log on both sides we have:

$ln(0.01) \geq ln(e^{-\lambda}+ln(1+\lambda)$

$ln(0.01) \geq -\lambda+ln(1+\lambda)$

$\lambda-ln(1+\lambda)+ln(0.01) \geq 0$

Thats a no linear equation but if we use a numerical method like the Newthon raphson Method or the Jacobi method we find a good point of estimate for the solution.

Using the Newthon Raphson method, we apply this formula:

$x_{n+1}=x_n -\frac{f(x_n)}{f'(x_n)}$