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Dominik [7]
3 years ago
13

Find the coefficient of variation for each of the two sets of data, then compare the variation. Round results to one decimal pla

ce. Listed below are the systolic blood pressures (in mm Hg) for a sample of men aged 20-29 and for a sample of men aged 60-69. Group of answer choices Men aged 20-29: 4.8% Men aged 60-69: 10.6% There is substantially more variation in blood pressures of the men aged 60-69. Men aged 20-29: 4.4% Men aged 60-69: 8.3% There is substantially more variation in blood pressures of the men aged 60-69. Men aged 20-29: 4.6% Men aged 60-69: 10.2 % There is substantially more variation in blood pressures of the men aged 60-69. Men aged 20-29: 7.6% Men aged 60-69: 4.7% There is more variation in blood pressures of the men aged 20-29.
Mathematics
1 answer:
svp [43]3 years ago
4 0

Here is  the correct computation of the question given.

Find the coefficient of variation for each of the two sets of data, then compare the variation. Round results to one decimal place. Listed below are the systolic blood pressures (in mm Hg) for a sample of men aged 20-29 and for a sample of men aged 60-69.

Men aged 20-29:      117      122     129      118     131      123

Men aged 60-69:      130     153      141      125    164     139

Group of answer choices

a)

Men aged 20-29: 4.8%

Men aged 60-69: 10.6%

There is substantially more variation in blood pressures of the men aged 60-69.

b)

Men aged 20-29: 4.4%

Men aged 60-69: 8.3%

There is substantially more variation in blood pressures of the men aged 60-69.

c)

Men aged 20-29: 4.6%

Men aged 60-69: 10.2 %

There is substantially more variation in blood pressures of the men aged 60-69.

d)

Men aged 20-29: 7.6%

Men aged 60-69: 4.7%

There is more variation in blood pressures of the men aged 20-29.

Answer:

(c)

Men aged 20-29: 4.6%

Men aged 60-69: 10.2 %

There is substantially more variation in blood pressures of the men aged 60-69.

Step-by-step explanation:

From the given question:

The coefficient of variation can be determined by the relation:

coefficient \ of  \ variation = \dfrac{standard \ deviation}{mean}*100

We will need to determine the coefficient of variation both men age 20 - 29 and men age 60 -69

To start with;

The coefficient of men age 20 -29

Let's first find the mean and standard deviation before we can do that ;

SO .

Mean = \dfrac{\sum \limits^{n}_{i-1}x_i}{n}

Mean = \frac{117+122+129+118+131+123}{6}

Mean = \dfrac{740}{6}

Mean = 123.33

Standard deviation  = \sqrt{\dfrac{\sum (x_i- \bar x)^2}{(n-1)} }

Standard deviation =\sqrt{\dfrac{(117-123.33)^2+(122-123.33)^2+...+(123-123.33)^2}{(6-1)} }

Standard deviation  = \sqrt{\dfrac{161.3334}{5}}

Standard deviation = \sqrt{32.2667}

Standard deviation = 5.68

The coefficient \ of  \ variation = \dfrac{standard \ deviation}{mean}*100

coefficient \ of  \ variation = \dfrac{5.68}{123.33}*100

Coefficient of variation = 4.6% for men age 20 -29

For men age 60-69 now;

Mean = \dfrac{\sum \limits^{n}_{i-1}x_i}{n}

Mean = \frac{   130 +    153    +  141  +    125 +   164  +   139}{6}

Mean = \dfrac{852}{6}

Mean = 142

Standard deviation  = \sqrt{\dfrac{\sum (x_i- \bar x)^2}{(n-1)} }

Standard deviation =\sqrt{\dfrac{(130-142)^2+(153-142)^2+...+(139-142)^2}{(6-1)} }

Standard deviation  = \sqrt{\dfrac{1048}{5}}

Standard deviation = \sqrt{209.6}

Standard deviation = 14.48

The coefficient \ of  \ variation = \dfrac{standard \ deviation}{mean}*100

coefficient \ of  \ variation = \dfrac{14.48}{142}*100

Coefficient of variation = 10.2% for men age 60 - 69

Thus; Option C is correct.

Men aged 20-29: 4.6%

Men aged 60-69: 10.2 %

There is substantially more variation in blood pressures of the men aged 60-69.

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Answer: B. X<12

Step-by-step explanation:

First we need to find out what number multipled by 4 is less than 56

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Prime factorization of 1408
V125BC [204]

Answer:

There are 7 copies of 2 and 1 copy of 11 in the product:

1408 = 2^7×11

Step-by-step explanation:

Factor the following integer:

1408

The last digit of 1408 is 8, which means it is even. Therefore 1408 is divisible by 2:

1408 = 2 704:

1408 = 2×704

The last digit of 704 is 4, which means it is even. Therefore 704 is divisible by 2:

704 = 2 352:

1408 = 2×2×352

The last digit of 352 is 2, which means it is even. Therefore 352 is divisible by 2:

352 = 2 176:

1408 = 2×2×2×176

The last digit of 176 is 6, which means it is even. Therefore 176 is divisible by 2:

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1408 = 2×2×2×2×88

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88 = 2 44:

1408 = 2×2×2×2×2×44

The last digit of 44 is 4, which means it is even. Therefore 44 is divisible by 2:

44 = 2 22:

1408 = 2×2×2×2×2×2×22

The last digit of 22 is 2, which means it is even. Therefore 22 is divisible by 2:

22 = 2 11:

1408 = 2×2×2×2×2×2×2×11

11 is not divisible by 2 since 11 is odd and 2 is even:

1408 = 2×2×2×2×2×2×2×11 (11 is not divisible by 2)

The sum of the digits of 11 is 1 + 1 = 2, which is not divisible by 3. This means 11 is not divisible by 3:

1408 = 2×2×2×2×2×2×2×11 (11 is not divisible by 2 or 3)

The last digit of 11 is not 5 or 0, which means 11 is not divisible by 5:

1408 = 2×2×2×2×2×2×2×11 (11 is not divisible by 2, 3 or 5)

Divide 7 into 11:

| | 1 | (quotient)

7 | 1 | 1 |  

- | | 7 |  

| | 4 | (remainder)

11 is not divisible by 7:

1408 = 2×2×2×2×2×2×2×11 (11 is not divisible by 2, 3, 5 or 7)

No primes less than 11 divide into it. Therefore 11 is prime:

1408 = 2×2×2×2×2×2×2×11

There are 7 copies of 2 and 1 copy of 11 in the product:

Answer: 1408 = 2^7×11

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Answer:

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