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Liono4ka [1.6K]
3 years ago
14

According to Incoterms, the risk of loss under contract terms "FAS Name of Vessel" passes to the buyer when the goods are delive

red alongside the named vessel. True or False
Business
1 answer:
AnnyKZ [126]3 years ago
6 0

Answer: True

Explanation:

Free Alongside (FAS) is an International Commerce term (Incoterm) that is used to describe that a seller should deliver goods to within reach of a Buyer's transportation vessel so that it may be ready to be picked up by the Buyer's vessel easily.

"FAS Name of Vessel" means that the seller should deliver the goods next to the Vessel named so that it may then be re-loaded into the vessel. The risk therefore passes to the Buyer from the Seller once this is done.

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If taxes are levied specifically for payment of interest and principal on long-term debt, those taxes are:
lys-0071 [83]

Answer:

Recognized as revenues in the debt service fund.

Explanation:

Debt Service fund is a term that is used to describes a form of cash reserve utilized in the payment of interest and principal on specific kinds of debt for a given period. For example, bond premiums are commonly imposed by state law to be moved to debt service funds.

Hence, If taxes are levied specifically for payment of interest and principal on long-term debt, those taxes are: Recognized as revenues in the debt service fund.

8 0
3 years ago
A cost that cannot be avoided or changed because it arises from a past decision, and is irrelevant to future decisions, is calle
Ronch [10]

Answer:

e. Sunk cost.

Explanation:

As per the given statement, the best appropriate option is sunk cost. As the sunk cost deals with the past cost which is already incurred in the past and it cannot be changed or avoided, neither it can be recovered. Example - Rent expense.

Plus it does not affect the future decisions that means it is irrelevant for decision-making aspects.

6 0
3 years ago
The more conservative a firm's management is, the higher its total debt to total capital ratio [measured as (Short-term debt Lon
PtichkaEL [24]

Answer:

False

Explanation:

The conservative approach is that the firm has greater level of working capital investment than the competitor or industry average. So to fund the higher level of working capital the company has a set of policy and targets related to the level of debt level which means the company will not be willing to borrow further money if their borrowing exceeds the set limit or benchmark. They might use the equity instruments (Preferred stock or Common equity) to fund the higher level of working capital.

So their no absolute argument whether the denominator will increase or the nominator will increase in the Total debt to capital ratio. Hence the statement is false.

8 0
3 years ago
On January 1, 2020 (the date of grant), Ayayai Corporation issues 1,900 shares of restricted stock to its executives. The fair v
vagabundo [1.1K]

Answer and Explanation:

The journal entries are shown below:

On Jan 1, 2014

Unearned compensation Dr. $45,000

        To paid in capital in excess of par  $35,500

        To common stock  $9,500

(Being the unearned compensation is recorded)  

On Dec 31,2014

Compensation expense Dr.  $15,000 ($45,000 ÷ 3 years)

         To unearned compensation $15,000

(Being one year compensation became due is recorded)  

5 0
3 years ago
What do people purchase as a form of risk management to protect themselves from losing a lot of money in the event something hap
MaRussiya [10]
They purchase insurance.
6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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