Yes, these 2 equations are equivalent
Answer:
56 coins for 0.50 cents
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
A) it converges
B) 1998.047
C) 2000
d) The sum is getting smaller and smaller
Step-by-step explanation:
Formula: a_n+a_1*r^(r-1)
(1000*((0.5^10)-1))/(0.5-1)=1998.047
(1000*((0.5^30)-1))/(0.5-1)=2000
Answer:
<h2>From least to greatest: C, B and A</h2>
Step-by-step explanation:
To order each Kicker correctly, we have to find the success rate of each one, which is obtained by dividing and then multiplying by 100 to obtained the percentage:
<h3>Success rate of A:</h3>
<h3>Success rate of B:</h3>
<h3>Success rate of C:</h3>
So, comparing all three, from least to greatest we have:
C with 79%, then B with 83%, and A with 86%.
Answer:
Sam gets £30 and Bethan gets £24.
Why?
When dealing with ratios, add up the numbers in the ratio.
5 + 4 = 9
Now, divide the total amount of money by that number.
£54/9 = 6
Now you have the base rate. Multiply each quantity in the ratio by this number.
5*6 = 30
4*6 = 24
Now, the ratio is (in euro) 30:24. This means that Sam has £30 and Bethan has £24.
Check:
30 + 24 = 54
