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Karolina [17]
3 years ago
12

Explain why, in seeking to avoid financial crisis, the government's role as regulator of the financial system does not imply it

should protect individual institutions from failure.
Business
1 answer:
GREYUIT [131]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: Market Efficiency

Explanation:

It is important that the Government as a regulator should not get involved in acts that would protect individual institutions from failure because that would defeat the whole purpose of a competitive industry.

If a government is known to directly involve itself in the protection of institutions from failure, efficiency in institutions may become low because of the lack of fear of failure as companies believe that should they run into bad times, they will simply be bailed out by the government so there is no need for them to maintain a competitive edge.

This can lead to a situation where we have companies performing sub optimally in an economy which can only act to reduce the Economic growth of a country.

Government institutions usually have such backing and in a lot of countries are prone to failure. Look at the Bamangwato Concessions Limited (BCL) mine in Botswana for instance that kept failing and refusing to improve it's efficiency because they could always run back to the government for a bailout. Their position eventually became so untenable that bankruptcy was the only option.

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Jan pays $70 each month for her auto insurance policy. this regular payment is called a: co-pay, deductible, premium, claim?
sertanlavr [38]
Pretty sure its co-pay. 
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4 0
3 years ago
How is Change Management related to Baselining?
zheka24 [161]

Answer:

hope it helps..

Explanation:

Change management is an important part of project management in which the original project plan, represented by the baseline, is used to measure and assess project execution. ... The initial baseline is created by copying the data from the project after the project plan is completed, prior to starting.

8 0
3 years ago
The Allowance for Doubtful Accounts T-account will have the ______ on the credit side. Multiple choice question. sales discounts
docker41 [41]

The Allowance for Doubtful Accounts T-account will have the  <u>estimated bad debts from the adjusting entry</u> sales discounts .

Doubtful account

An allowance for doubtful accounts is considered a “contra asset,” because it reduces the amount of an asset, in this case the accounts receivable. The allowance, sometimes called a bad debt reserve, represents management's estimate of the amount of accounts receivable that will not be paid by customers.

Learn more doubtful account here :

brainly.com/question/15409074

#SPJ4

8 0
2 years ago
Alice purchases a rental house on August 22, 2017, for a cost of $174,000. Of this amount, $100,000 is considered to be allocabl
sergij07 [2.7K]

Answer:

correct option is c. $1,364

Explanation:

given data

purchases house = $174,000

cost of the home = $100,000

cost of the land = $74,000

solution

we know that here MACRS  depreciation deduction is here on the $100000

because home only residential real property

and land is not depreciated assets

so here depreciation rate is 1.364 %

so that maximum depreciation deduction allowed is = $100,000 × 1.364

maximum depreciation deduction allowed = 1364

so correct option is c. $1,364

3 0
3 years ago
A risk of marketing myopia is that sellers pay more attention to
vitfil [10]

The correct answer is:   [D]:

________________________________________________

        " their products than to customer needs. "

________________________________________________

Hope this helps!

        Best wishes!

________________________________________________

5 0
3 years ago
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