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Rom4ik [11]
3 years ago
6

CAN SOMEONE PLS ANSWER THIS ILL REALLY APPREICIATE IT

Mathematics
1 answer:
GrogVix [38]3 years ago
3 0
The answer would be -2! :)
You might be interested in
Sixty seven percent of the employees in a company have managerial positions, and 58 percent of the employees in the company have
Kazeer [188]

Answer: The proportion of employees who either have MBAs or are managers are 0.58.

Step-by-step explanation:

Since we have given that

Probability of employees having managerial positions = 67%

Probability of employees having MBA degrees = 58%

Probability of managers having MBA degrees = 67%

So, using probability formulas, we get that

P(A\cup B)=P(A)+P(B)-P(A\cap B)\\\\P(A\cup B)=0.67+0.58-0.67\\\\P(A\cup B)=0.58

Hence, the proportion of employees who either have MBAs or are managers are 0.58.

7 0
3 years ago
(a) If G is a finite group of even order, show that there must be an element a = e, such that a−1 = a (b) Give an example to sho
Dahasolnce [82]

Answer:

See proof below

Step-by-step explanation:

First, notice that if a≠e and a^-1=a, then a²=e (this is an equivalent way of formulating the problem).

a) Since G has even order, |G|=2n for some positive number n. Let e be the identity element of G. Then A=G\{e} is a set with 2n-1 elements.

Now reason inductively with A by "pairing elements with its inverses":

List A as A={a1,a2,a3,...,a_(2n-1)}. If a1²=e, then we have proved the theorem.

If not, then a1^(-1)≠a1, hence a1^(-1)=aj for some j>1 (it is impossible that a^(-1)=e, since e is the only element in G such that e^(-1)=e). Reorder the elements of A in such a way that a2=a^(-1), therefore a2^(-1)=a1.

Now consider the set A\{a1,a2}={a3,a4,...,a_(2n-1)}. If a3²=e, then we have proved the theorem.

If not, then a3^(-1)≠a1, hence we can reorder this set to get a3^(-1)=a4 (it is impossible that a^(-1)∈{e,a1,a2} because inverses are unique and e^(-1)=e, a1^(-1)=a2, a2^(-1)=a1 and a3∉{e,a1,a2}.

Again, consider A\{a1,a2,a3,a4}={a5,a6,...,a_(2n-1)} and repeat this reasoning. In the k-th step, either we proved the theorem, or obtained that a_(2k-1)^(-1)=a_(2k)

After n-1 steps, if the theorem has not been proven, we end up with the set A\{a1,a2,a3,a4,...,a_(2n-3), a_(2n-2)}={a_(2n-1)}. By process of elimination, we must have that a_(2n-1)^(-1)=a_(2n-1), since this last element was not chosen from any of the previous inverses. Additionally, a_(2n1)≠e by construction. Hence, in any case, the statement holds true.

b) Consider the group (Z3,+), the integers modulo 3 with addition modulo 3. (Z3={0,1,2}). Z3 has odd order, namely |Z3|=3.

Here, e=0. Note that 1²=1+1=2≠e, and 2²=2+2=4mod3=1≠e. Therefore the conclusion of part a) does not hold

7 0
3 years ago
How much is 25 pens for $19.75.
Scilla [17]

Answer:

$493.75

Step-by-step explanation:

  1. 25 × 19.75 = $493.75

I hope this helps!

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Hello look below please
olchik [2.2K]

Answer:

it is 1

Step-by-step explanation:

i think

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Write 2350 million in standard form
AleksAgata [21]

we know that

<u>Standard Form</u> is also known as Scientific Notation, is a method of writing numbers that accommodates value excessively large or small to be suitably written in Standard Decimal Notation

in this problem we have

2,350\ million

Remember that

1\ million=1,000,000

so

2,350\ million=2,350*1,000,000=2,350,000,000

<u>convert to standard form </u>

2,350,000,000=2.35*10^{9}

therefore

<u>the answer is</u>

2.35*10^{9}


8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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