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Bumek [7]
3 years ago
8

Which value is equivalent to sin 42?

Mathematics
1 answer:
mafiozo [28]3 years ago
4 0

ANSWER-COS 48 DEGREE

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WILL MAKE BRAINLIEST!! What type of angle is angle A?
torisob [31]
Obtuse angle because is more than 90 degrees but less than 180 degrees.
8 0
1 year ago
(50 points worth ) A rectangular prism fish tank a length of 5 1/2 in., a width of 7 in., and a height of 2 1/2 in. Use this to
densk [106]
A) What's the volume of this fish tank? Show all work and express your answer as a mixed number in its most simplified form!
 By definition we have that the volume of a rectangular prism is given by:
 V = (w) * (l) * (h)
 Where,
 w: width
 l: long
 h: height
 We then have to replace the values:
 V = (7) * (5.5) * (2.5)
 V = 96.25 in ^ 3
 Equivalently:
 V = 96 1/4 in ^ 3


 B) Could this fish tank hold 100 in³ of water? Answer yes or no, then explain why in one or more sentences.

 No, this fish tank could not hold 100 in³ of water.
 This is because the prism volume (part A) is less than 100 in ^ 3.
 In other words;
 96 1/4 in ^ 3 <100 in ^ 3
4 0
3 years ago
Can someone plz help me out
Shkiper50 [21]
2.false. This is so as 3 to 4 or 3/4=0.75 while 4 to 3 is 1.333333333333333 infinite. 
7 0
3 years ago
If H= 2f over m+1, solve the equation for f
Viefleur [7K]
H = 2f / (m+1)
[multiply by (m+1)]
h(m+1) = 2f
[divide by 2]
f = (h (m + 1)) / 2

3b / (b+2) = 12 / (b+2)
[multiply by (b+2)]
3b = 12
[divide by 3]
b = 4

3 / (6x + 1) / 2 = 8 / (x + 4) / 3
[multiply both denominators to mike one denominator]
3 / 8(6x+1) = 8 / 3(x+4)
[expand brackets]
3 / (48x + 8) = 8 / (3x + 12)
[multiply by (48x + 8)]
3 = 8(48x + 8) / (3x+12)
[multiply by (3x+12)]
3(3x +12) = 4(48x + 8)
[simplify]
9x + 36 = 192x + 32
173x = 4
x = 4 / 173
8 0
2 years ago
Hiro has a stack of cards with one number from the set 1, 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4 written on each card. What is the probability that
professor190 [17]

Answer:

Therefore, the probability is P=3/32.

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that Hiro has a stack of cards with one number from the set 1, 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4 written on each card.  

We calculate the probability that he pulls out a 3 first and then pulls out a 2 without replacing them.

The probability that he pulls out a 3 first is 3/8.

The probability of a second card being 2 is 2/8.

We get:

P=\frac{3}{8}\cdot \frac{2}{8}\\\\P=\frac{6}{64}\\\\P=\frac{3}{32}

Therefore, the probability is P=3/32.

7 0
2 years ago
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