The payback period of the project is 3.3 years.
Payback period = initial investment/ annual cash flow
= 50,000/15,000
= 3.3 years.
The time period payback period refers to the amount of time it takes to get better the fee of an funding. surely put, it's miles the period of time an investment reaches a breakeven point. human beings and groups in particular invest their money to receives a commission again, which is why the payback length is so vital.
Payback period in capital budgeting refers back to the time required to recoup the budget expended in an funding, or to attain the ruin-even factor. for example, a $a thousand funding made at the start of 12 months 1 which again $500 at the quit of year 1 and year 2 respectively could have a two-year payback duration.
In simple terms, the payback period is calculated by dividing the cost of the funding via the annual coins waft till the cumulative coins flow is nice, that's the payback yr. Payback length is typically expressed in years.
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Answer:
Financial leverage
Explanation:
Financial leverage is defined as the use of borrowed funds to perform a business activity or investment that is expected to have higher returns than the cost of borrowing the money (interest).
When a company is looking for funds for its activities there are 3 options they can use: equity, debt, or lease.
Use of equity is the only option where no extra cost is incurred for use of funds.
When using debt or lease cost of use is incurred. The business will need to engage in an activity that will give it revenue above cost of debt.
This practice is called use of financial leverage.
Answer:
. C) a drop in the foreign exchange value of the dollar.
Explanation:
An aggregate demand curve can be regarded as a curve that display total spending that is available
domestic goods/services with respect to their price level. the horizontal axis provide the real GDP while price level is displayed by vertical axis. It should be noted that The aggregate demand curve would shift to the right as a result a drop in the foreign exchange value of the dollar.
Answer: 0.7973
Explanation:
Binomial probability formula :-
, where P(x) is the probability of getting success in x trials , p is the probability of success in one trial and n is the number of trials.
Given : The probability of getting a defect components : 
If randomly select and test 26 components , then the probability that this whole shipment will be accepted will be :-
Hence, the probability that this whole shipment will be accepted = 0.7973
Answer:
Carryover basis
In a Type A merger, the basis of the assets and liabilities carries over to the surviving entity.
Explanation:
