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Lisa [10]
3 years ago
5

Which of the following is consistent with a very flat yield curve for government bonds? a) An increasing risk of bond defaults b

) Expectations of higher short-term interest rates in the future c) Expectations of increasing rates of economic growth d) A high demand for this country’s bonds from overseas investors
Business
1 answer:
Effectus [21]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

b) Expectations of higher short-term interest rates in the future

Explanation:

When the yield curve is normal (upward sloping) it is because investors expect longer-maturity bonds to have a higher yield than shorter-maturity bonds, since interest rates are expected to rise in the long term.

On the contrary, if the yield curve is flat, it is because short-maturity and long-maturity bonds are giving the same, or almost the same yield, indicating that investors expect short-term interest rates to rise so much, that they compensate the capital gains for short-maturity bonds in terms of interst.

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Here are returns and standard deviations for four investments. Return (%) Standard Deviation (%) Treasury bills 4.5 0 Stock P 8.
Jlenok [28]

Answer:

a. Standard deviation of the portfolio = 7.00%

b(i) Standard deviation of the portfolio = 30.00%

b(ii) Standard deviation of the portfolio = 4.00%

b(iii) Standard deviation of the portfolio = 21.40%

Explanation:

Note: This question is not complete. The complete question is therefore provided before answering the question as follows:

Here are returns and standard deviations for four investments.

                                  Return (%)           Standard Deviation (%)

Treasury bills                4.5                                    0

Stock P                          8.0                                   14

Stock Q                        17.0                                  34

Stock R                       21.5                                    26

Calculate the standard deviations of the following portfolios.

a. 50% in Treasury bills, 50% in stock P. (Enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places.)

b. 50% each in Q and R, assuming the shares have:

i. perfect positive correlation

ii. perfect negative correlation

iii. no correlation

(Do not round intermediate calculations. Enter your answers as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places.)

The explanation to the answer is now provided as follows:

a. Calculate the standard deviations of 50% in Treasury bills, 50% in stock P. (Enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places.)

Since there is no correlation between Treasury bills and stocks, it therefore implies that the correlation coefficient between the Treasury bills and stock P is zero.

The standard deviation between the Treasury bills and stock P can be calculated by first estimating the variance of their returns using the following formula:

Portfolio return variance = (WT^2 * SDT^2) + (WP^2 * SDP^2) + (2 * WT * SDT * WP * SDP * CFtp) ......................... (1)

Where;

WT = Weight of Stock Treasury bills = 50%

WP = Weight of Stock P = 50%

SDT = Standard deviation of Treasury bills = 0

SDP = Standard deviation of stock P = 14%

CFtp = The correlation coefficient between Treasury bills and stock P = 0.45

Substituting all the values into equation (1), we have:

Portfolio return variance = (50%^2 * 0^2) + (50%^2 * 14%^2) + (2 * 50% * 0 * 50% * 14% * 0) = 0.49%

Standard deviation of the portfolio = (Portfolio return variance)^(1/2) = (0.49%)^(1/2) = (0.49)^0.5 = 7.00%

b. 50% each in Q and R

To calculated the standard deviation 50% each in Q and R, we first estimate the variance using the following formula:

Portfolio return variance = (WQ^2 * SDQ^2) + (WR^2 * SDR^2) + (2 * WQ * SDQ * WR * SDR * CFqr) ......................... (2)

Where;

WQ = Weight of Stock Q = 50%

WR = Weight of Stock R = 50%

SDQ = Standard deviation of stock Q = 34%

SDR = Standard deviation of stock R = 26%

b(i). assuming the shares have perfect positive correlation

This implies that:

CFqr = The correlation coefficient between stocks Q and = 1

Substituting all the values into equation (2), we have:

Portfolio return variance = (50%^2 * 34%^2) + (50%^2 * 26%^2) + (2 * 50% * 34% * 50% * 26% * 1) = 9.00%

Standard deviation of the portfolio = (Portfolio return variance)^(1/2) = (9.00%)^(1/2) = (9.00%)^0.5 = 30.00%

b(ii). assuming the shares have perfect negative correlation

This implies that:

CFqr = The correlation coefficient between stocks Q and = -1

Substituting all the values into equation (2), we have:

Portfolio return variance = (50%^2 * 34%^2) + (50%^2 * 26%^2) + (2 * 50% * 34% * 50% * 26% * (-1)) = 0.16%

Standard deviation of the portfolio = (Portfolio return variance)^(1/2) = (0.16%)^(1/2) = (0.16%)^0.5 = 4.00%

b(iii). assuming the shares have no correlation

This implies that:

CFqr = The correlation coefficient between stocks Q and = 0

Substituting all the values into equation (2), we have:

Portfolio return variance = (50%^2 * 34%^2) + (50%^2 * 26%^2) + (2 * 50% * 34% * 50% * 26% * 0) = 4.58%

Standard deviation of the portfolio = (Portfolio return variance)^(1/2) = (4.58%)^(1/2) = (4.58%)^0.5 = 21.40%

8 0
3 years ago
May 11 sydney accepts delivery of $40,000 of merchandise it purchases for resale from troy: invoice dated may 11; terms 3/10, n/
k0ka [10]

Answer:

Journal entries for Sydney (buyer)

May 11. Merchandise is accepted.

Dr Merchandise inventory 40,000

    Cr Accounts payable 40,000

May 11. Shipping costs.

Dr Merchandise inventory 345

    Cr Cash 345

May 12. Returned merchandise.

Dr Accounts payable 1,400

    Cr Merchandise inventory 1,400

May 20. invoice paid within discount period.

Dr Accounts payable 38,600

    Cr Cash 37,442

    Cr Purchase discounts 1,158

Journal entries for Troy (seller)

May 11. Sold merchandise.

Dr Accounts Receivables 40,000

Dr Cost of Goods Sold 30,000

    Cr Sales revenue 40,000

    Cr Merchandise inventory 30,000

May 12. Returned merchandise.

Dr Sales returns and allowances 1,400

Dr Merchandise inventory 1,050

    Cr Accounts receivables 1,400

    Cr Cost of goods sold 1,050

May 20. Invoice paid.

Dr Cash 37,442

Dr Sales discounts 1,158

    Cr Accounts receivables 38,600

7 0
2 years ago
The percentage of sales approach separates accounts on the pro forma income statement and balance sheet into those that change d
lukranit [14]

Answer:

Sales

Explanation:

Sales is defined as the activities which are related to the selling or the number of the services or goods that are sold in the given period of time or year.

The seller who finished or concluded the sales in relation to the acquisition or appropriation or in a direct interaction at the time of sale with the buyer.

Therefore, the percentage of the sales method, separates the accounts on the balance sheet and pro forma income statement into those which change directly with sales.

5 0
3 years ago
Whether on paper or computer, which of the following would you use to record bookkeeping data in a ledger? A. Balance sheet B. J
Eduardwww [97]
You want to record all of that stuff inna journal
4 0
3 years ago
When someone owns an asset (such as a share of stock) that rises in value, he has an "accrued" capital gain. If he sells the ass
puteri [66]

Answer:

Please check the answer below

Explanation:

a. One issue is the "locking-in" of assets. If I hold shares of Corporation X, then I can delay paying taxes as long as I don't sell. Effectively, I get to keep all of the interest/dividend payments on my tax liability. However, if I discover that X is really a poor investment and Corporation Y is better, then selling X and buying Y means that I have to pay taxes. This might discourage me from making a switch to a more profitable/efficient investment decision. This is the "locking-in" effect.

b. A short-run cut might cause many people to sell stocks that they had felt "locked-in" with. The penalty for switching is smaller, so more people will do it -- resulting in a great deal of cap gains tax revenue collected.

c. Taxing realized gains, even when the stock is not sold, rather than just accrued gains would eliminate this locking-in effect. Investors would not be penalized for switching to a better investment, and long-term capital gains revenue (as well as efficiency) would rise.

6 0
3 years ago
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