Wouldnt it be 0.2 i think
Answer:
First choice:

Explanation:
<em>The probability that the first is a man's card and the second, a woman's card</em> is calculated as the product of both probabilities, taking into account the fact that the second time the number of cards in the hat has changed.
In spite of it is said that the cards are drawn at once, since it is stated a specific order for the cards (first is a man's card and the second, a woman's card) you can model the procedure as if the cards were drawn consecutively, instead of at once.
<u>1. Probability that the first is a man's card</u>
- Number of cards in the hat = 20 (the 20 business card)
- Number of man's card in the hat: 10
- Probability = favorable oucomes / possible outcomes = 10/20 = 1/2.
<u />
<u>2. Probability that the second is a woman's card</u>
- Number of cards in the hat = 19 (there is one less card in the hat)
- Number of wonan's card in the hat: 10
- Probability = favorable oucomes / possible outcomes = 10/19.
<u>3. Probability that the first is a man's card and the second, a woman's card</u>
<u />
That is the first choice.
Answer:
c = g - 256
Step-by-step explanation:
The word "is" indicates an equal sign, and saying you take 256 from g is g - 256.
Answer:
6250
Step-by-step explanation:
Fill in the given number and solve for x. The answer is 1000x, rounded.

x is in thousands, so 6.25×1000 = 6,250 passengers flew in June.
Answer:
The reference angle is 
Step-by-step explanation:
The given angle is
The reference angle is the acute angle, that a given angle makes with the x-axis.
First let us make a sketch of the given angle. <em>See diagram in attachment.</em>
Let
be the reference angle of 
Then, from the diagram, we need to subtract
from
to get to
.
We can therefore write the following equation and solve for
.

We group like terms to get,

We collect LCM to get,

We simplify to get,

We divide through by 
to get,
The correct answer is D.