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Tresset [83]
3 years ago
13

Forty percent of what number is 144? (A)360 (B) 57.6 (C)72 (D)5760

Mathematics
2 answers:
ale4655 [162]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

(A) 360

Step-by-step explanation:

360*.40=144

ziro4ka [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

360

Step-by-step explanation:

This can be done in more than one way, but i like the simpler way, so i will show you that. The simplest way to do this is to simplify the equation into a simpler way to do it. If you have 40%, that's hard to get to 100%, so divide it by 4. You will get 36, and that is now 10% of the unknown number. Then just multiply 36 by 10 and you get 360, which is your final number.

Hope this helped, please mark brainliest i need to feed my family ^_^

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Sketch the region of integration and convert the polar integral into cartesian integral or sum of cartesian integral. Don't eval
sashaice [31]

Answer: The transformed integral is

\int_0^{\pi/6}\int_0^{2\sec\theta}r^5\sin^2\theta dr d\theta=\int_0^2\int_0^{\frac{1}{\sqrt{4}}x}y^2(x^2+y^2).

The region of integration is a triangle delimited by the x axis, the vertical line x=2, and the line y=\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}x.

Step-by-step explanation: For this integral we have:

1. 0 and

2. 0.

The first condition says that the region of integrarion is within the "slice" of the xy plane between the polar angle of \theta=0 and \theta=\frac{\pi}{6} in the first quadrant. To make sense of the second condition we will convert to the Cartesian coordinates. Remember that

3. x=r\cos\theta

4. y=r\sin\theta

5. r=\sqrt{x^2+y^2}

6. \theta=\arctan\frac{y}{x}\quad \text{only in the first quadrant}

Using 2. (squaring it), along with 5. we obtain

0

Now using 3. to express \cos^2\theta=\frac{x^2}{r^2}=\frac{x^2}{x^2+y^2} we obtain

0

The left inequality 0 just says that we start from the origin. The right inequality, after cancelling x^2+y^2, yields 1. Since we are in the first quadrant x has to be positive so this inequality can be rewritten as (taking the square root) x. So the region is a triangle delimited by the slice of the first quadrant between \theta=0 and \theta=\frac{\pi}{6} and by the vertical line x=2 (see figure).

In other words, this triangle is delimited by the x axis, by the vertical line x=2 and by the line \frac{y}=\tan\frac{\pi}{6}x=\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}x. This helps us to define the boundaries of integration: we have 0 (from the origin up to x=2) and 0 (from the x axis i.e. y=0 up to the line mentioned before).

Next we transform the area element. In cartesian coordinates it is dxdy while in polar coordinates it is rdrd\theta so we have r^5\sin^2\thetadrd\theta=r^4\sin^2\theta dxdy.

Next we use 4. to express the sine: r^4\sin^2\theta dxdy=r^4\frac{y^2}{r^2}dxdy=r^2y^2dxdy.

Finally, we use 5. r^2y^2dxdy=y^2(x^2+y^2)dxdy.

Therefore, the transformed integral is

\int_0^{\pi/6}\int_0^{2\sec\theta}r^5\sin^2\theta dr d\theta=\int_0^2\int_0^{\frac{1}{\sqrt{4}}x}y^2(x^2+y^2).

5 0
3 years ago
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Alona [7]
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8 0
3 years ago
Does this graph show a function?
Vsevolod [243]

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Yes it is a function.

Step-by-step explanation:

B is my answer.

8 0
3 years ago
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Pleses help me thank you
OLEGan [10]

when solving for y

y = -7x/3-6

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4 0
3 years ago
____________________
MaRussiya [10]

Step-by-step explanation:

the numbers of the yellow and white counters

= 288- 38 = 250.

the ratio of yellow to white = 1:4

so,

the numbers of the yellow counters =

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the numbers of the white counters =

4/(1+4) ×250 = 4/5 ×250 = 200

and the numbers of the red counters = 38

7 0
2 years ago
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