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d1i1m1o1n [39]
3 years ago
8

10) The binary notation of 231) is

Mathematics
1 answer:
siniylev [52]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: 1110 0111

Step-by-step explanation:

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Jamal is a door to door vacuum salesman. His weekly salary, S , is $250 plus $50 for each vacuum he sells. This can be written a
Aleks04 [339]

Answer:

31 vacuums

Step-by-step explanation:

1800 = 250 + 50v

1800 - 250 = 50v

50v = 1550

v = 1550 / 50

v = 31

He sold 31 vacuums.

8 0
3 years ago
Howis 1/8 greater than 3/16?
Basile [38]
You have \dfrac18=\dfrac2{16}, so that's not true.
8 0
3 years ago
Choose two angles that are each separately alternate exterior angles with 412.
Alborosie

Answer:

∠2 and ∠5

Step-by-step explanation:

we know that

<u>Alternate Exterior Angles</u> are a pair of angles on the outer side of each of those two lines but on opposite sides of the transversal

In this problem

∠12 and ∠2 are alternate exterior angles

∠12 and ∠5 are alternate exterior angles

therefore

∠2 and ∠5 are each separately alternate exterior angles with ∠12

6 0
3 years ago
A couple intends to have two children, and suppose that approximately 52% of births are male and 48% are female.
Pachacha [2.7K]

a) Probability of both being males is 27%

b) Probability of both being females is 23%

c) Probability of having exactly one male and one female is 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

a)

The probability that the birth is a male can be written as

p(m) = 0.52 (which corresponds to 52%)

While the probability that the birth is a female can be written as

p(f) = 0.48 (which corresponds to 48%)

Here we want to calculate the probability that over  2 births, both are male. Since the two births are two independent events (the probability of the 2nd to be a male  does not depend on the fact that the 1st one is a male), then the probability of both being males is given by the product of the individual probabilities:

p(mm)=p(m)\cdot p(m)

And substituting, we find

p(mm)=0.52\cdot 0.52 = 0.27

So, 27%.

b)

In this case, we want to find the probability that both children are female, so the probability

p(ff)

As in the previous case, the probability of the 2nd child to be a female is independent from whether the 1st one is a male or a female: therefore, we can apply the rule for independent events, and this means that the probability that both children are females is the product of the individual probability of a child being a female:

p(ff)=p(f)\cdot p(f)

And substituting

p(f)=0.48

We find:

p(ff)=0.48\cdot 0.48=0.23

Which means 23%.

c)

In this case, we want to find the probability they have exactly one male and exactly one female child. This is given by the sum of two probabilities:

- The probability that 1st child is a male and 2nd child is a female, namely p(mf)

- The probability that 1st child is a female and 2nd child is a male, namely p(fm)

So, this probability is

p(mf Ufm)=p(mf)+p(fm)

We have:

p(mf)=p(m)\cdot p(f)=0.52\cdot 0.48=0.25

p(fm)=p(f)\cdot p(m)=0.48\cdot 0.52=0.25

Therefore, this probability is

p(mfUfm)=0.25+0.25=0.50

So, 50%.

Learn more about probabilities:

brainly.com/question/5751004

brainly.com/question/6649771

brainly.com/question/8799684

brainly.com/question/7888686

#LearnwithBrainly

5 0
3 years ago
X² + 8x=-3<br> A. 8<br> B. 16<br> C. 64<br> D. 4
kari74 [83]

Answer:

hablan español? Si hablan porfavor me pueden ayudar en una tarea de matemática que no se mucho matemática

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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