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katrin2010 [14]
3 years ago
12

30 points

Mathematics
1 answer:
igomit [66]3 years ago
8 0
Since the rate of descent is a constant this is a linear equation and can be expressed as:

h=vt+b, where h=feet, v=slope or rate, b=y-intercept (y value when x=0 which is the initial height)

h=-2t+b, using the point (3,67) we can solve for b, or the initial height

67=-2(3)+b

67=-6+b

73=b  so the initial height was 73 ft and the height equation is then:

h(t)=67-2t so when t=8 you have:

h(8)=67-2(8)

h(8)=67-16

h(8)=51 ft
You might be interested in
The volume of the sphere is 904.32 m. To the nearest meter, what is the radius of the sphere????? Use 3.14 for pi.
Rus_ich [418]

Answer:

6

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for the volume of a sphere is \frac{4}{3} \pi r^3. Plugging in the values that you are given, you get:

904.32=\frac{4}{3}\pi r^3

Dividing both sides by pi or 3.14:

288=\frac{4}{3}r^3

Dividing both sides by 4/3:

216=r^3

Taking the cube root of both sides:

r=6

Hope this helps!

8 0
3 years ago
HELP!!! WHICH FUNCTION HAS THE LARGEST Y INTERCEPT
ratelena [41]

For f(x), the function uses the following formula:


ax^2 + bx + c


The y-intercept in this formula is represented by c.

f(x) has a c value of -4, so the y-intercept of f(x) is -4.


For g(x), the y-intercept is found when the graph cross the y-axis.

g(x) cross the y-axis at y = 0, so the y-intercept of g(x) is 0.


For h(x), the y-intercept is found by taking the output at x = 0.

At x = 0, the y value that is output is -2, so the y-intercept is -2.


Compare the three y-intercepts:


f(0) = -4

g(0) = 0

h(0) = -2


-4 < -2 < 0


The function with the greatest y-intercept is g(x), with a y-intercept of 0.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
In the figure, assume that angles that appear to be right angles are right angles.
Kaylis [27]

Answer:

45

Step-by-step explanation:

split the shape in three parts, 3*5 + 6*4 + 3*4/2

4 0
2 years ago
If your roll a six sided die what is the probability of getting a 2 or a 6
ohaa [14]

Answer:

(A)1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

probability of getting a 2 = 1/6

probability of getting a 6 = 1/6

so the probability of getting a 2 or a 6

=(probability of getting a 2+probability of getting a 6)

=(1/6+1/6)

=2*(1/6)

=1/3

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Please answer fast!!
mel-nik [20]

0.8 • 0.8 • 0.8 =0.512

3 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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