That is an annuity and use the attached formula.
Total = 300 * [(1.055)^11 -1] / .055 -300
Total = 300 *
<span>
<span>
<span>
1.8020924036
</span>
</span>
</span>
-1 /.055 -300
Total = 300 *
<span>.8020924036 / .055 - 300
</span>Total = 300 *
<span>
<span>
<span>
14.5834982473
</span>
</span>
</span>
-300
Total =
<span>
<span>
<span>
4375.0494741818
</span>
</span>
</span>
-300
Total =
<span>4075.05
</span>
The range of the function is C.
When a questions asks about the RANGE of the function, they are specifically talking about Y-VALUES. If a questions asks about DOMAIN, they want the X-VALUES.
This is a quadratic function.
A and B could be eliminated right away since range asks for y-values, not x-values.
First, let's make these two into equations.
The first plan has an initial fee of $40 and costs an additional $0.16 per mile driven.
Our equation would then be
C = 40 + 0.16m
where C is the total cost, and m is the number of miles driven.
The second plan has an initial fee of $51 and costs an additional $0.11 per mile driven.
So, the equation is
C = 51 + 0.11m
where C is the total cost, and m is the number of miles driven.
Now, your question seems to be asking for one mileage for both, equalling one cost. I would go through all the steps I've taken to try and find this for you, but it would probably take hours to type out and read. In short, I'm not entirely sure that an answer like that is possible in this situation, simply because of the large difference in the initial fee of the two plans, along with the sparse common multiples between the two mileage costs.
Answer:
It is about 537.2
Step-by-step explanation:
V= π · r^2 · h
V= π · 3^2 · 19
V≈ 537.2
