Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Draw an infinite vertical line on the +40 x axis.
What? I don't understand what you mean...
Answer : The value of x and y is 8 and 10 respectively.
Step-by-step explanation :
As we known that if two parallel lines are cut by a transversal line then consecutive interior angles are supplementary.
From the given figure we conclude that:
...........(1)
............(2)
...........(3)
...........(4)
Now we adding equation 2 and 4, we get the value of x.
Now we are putting the value of x in 4, we get the value of y.
Therefore, the value of x and y is 8 and 10 respectively.
Answer:
$114.80
Step-by-step explanation:
Multiply 18% and 140 to find the drop price.
.18 x 140= $25.20 now subtr. this from the original price
$140.00-$25.20=$114.80 is the sale price
Proof by induction
Base case:
n=1: 1*2*3=6 is obviously divisible by six.
Assumption: For every n>1 n(n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 6.
For n+1:
(n+1)(n+2)(n+3)=
(n(n+1)(n+2)+3(n+1)(n+2))
We have assumed that n(n+1)(n+2) is divisble by 6.
We now only need to prove that 3(n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 6.
If 3(n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 6, then (n+1)(n+2) must be divisible by 2.
The "cool" part about this proof.
Since n is a natural number greater than 1 we can say the following:
If n is an odd number, then n+1 is even, then n+1 is divisible by 2 thus (n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 2,so we have proved what we wanted.
If n is an even number" then n+2 is even, then n+1 is divisible by 2 thus (n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 2,so we have proved what we wanted.
Therefore by using the method of mathematical induction we proved that for every natural number n, n(n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 6. QED.
