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RoseWind [281]
3 years ago
5

The output is one-fifth of the input

Mathematics
1 answer:
Sindrei [870]3 years ago
8 0

Y=X/5

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1:

Let X be the input and Y be the output variable

Given: the output is one-fifth of the input

Step 2:

Y=X/5 be the require function

Eq:

for X=1, Y = 1/5

    X=2, Y=2/5, etc

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3 years ago
What fraction of a year are 31 days ?
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Answer:

  • non-leap years: 31/365
  • leap years: 31/366

Step-by-step explanation:

As a fraction of the number of days in a calendar year, it will depend on whether the year is a leap year.

non-leap years have 365 days, so 31 days is 31/365 years.

leap years have 366 days, so 31 days is 31/366 years.

_____

If you're asking for the purpose of computing interest, you need to be aware that "ordinary interest" counts 360 days in a year. 31 days would be 31/360 years. "Exact interest" counts 365 days in a year, so 31 days would be 31/365 years.

In astronomy, the definitions of "day" and "year" may vary, depending on the frame of reference and what direction in space marks the boundary of the period. The precise fraction will depend on how you define these terms and where the clock is located.

5 0
2 years ago
Given a standard deck of 52 cards, 3 cards are dealt without replacement. Using this situation, answer the questions below.<b
kherson [118]
Given that <span>3 cards are dealt without replacement in a </span><span>standard deck of 52 cards.

Part A:

There are 4 queens in a standard deck of 52 card, thus the probability that the first card is a queen is given by 4 / 52 = 1 / 13.

Since, the first card is not replaced, thus there are 3 queens remaining and 51 ards remaining in total, thus the probability that the second card is a queen is given</span> by 3 / 51 = 1 / 17

Similarly the probability that the third card is a queen is given by 2 / 50 = 1 / 25.

Therefore, the probability that <span>all three cards are queens is given by

\frac{1}{13} \times \frac{1}{17} \times \frac{1}{25} = \frac{1}{5525}



Part B:

Yes the probability of drawing a queen of heart is independent of the probability of drawing a queen of diamonds because they are separate cards and drawing one of the cards does not in any way affect the chance of drawing the other card.



Part C:

Given that the first card is a queen, then there are 3 queens remaining out of 51 cards remaining, thus the number of cards that are not queen is 51 - 3 = 48 cards.

Therefore, </span>if the first card is a queen, the probability that the second card will not be a queen is given by 48 / 51 = 16 / 17



Part D:

<span>Given that the first two card are queens, then there are 2 queens remaining out of 50 cards remaining.

Therefore, </span>if two of the three cards are queens ,<span>the probability that you will be dealt three queens</span> is given by 2 / 50 = 1 / 25 = 0.04



Part E:

<span>Given that the first two card are queens, then there are 2 queens remaining out of 50 cards remaining, thus the number of cards that are not queen is 50 - 2 = 48 cards.

Therefore, </span>if two of the three cards are queens ,the probability that the other card is not a queen is given by 48 / 50 = 24 / 25 = 0.96
8 0
3 years ago
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