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nevsk [136]
3 years ago
9

Find a value for x if 1/x > x

Mathematics
1 answer:
Ymorist [56]3 years ago
6 0

Since x can't be zero (it sits at the denominator of the left hand side), let's split cases:

If x is positive

It this case, we can multiply both sides by x without changing the inequality sign:

\dfrac{1}{x} > x \iff 1 > x^2 \iff x \in (-1,1)

But since we're assuming that x is positive, we can only accept the numbers between 0 and 1.

If x is negative

It this case, in order to multiply both sides by x we have to change the inequality sign:

\dfrac{1}{x} > x \iff 1 < x^2 \iff x \in (-\infty,-1) \cup (1,\infty)

But since we're assuming that x is negative, we can only accept the numbers which are smaller than -1.

So, putting all the pieces together, we have that the solution is given by the following interval:

(-\infty, -1) \cup (0,1)

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Answer:

(b) For each hour that Michelle drove, she traveled an additional 50 miles.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

(x_1,y_1) = (0,350) ---- start

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Required

Which is true

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This is false, because:

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To do this, we calculate the slope (m) using:

m = \frac{y_2 -y_1}{x_2- x_1}

m = \frac{0 - 350}{7-0}

m = -\frac{350}{7}

m = -50

This means that the rate is 50 miles driven in 1 hour.

<em>(b) is correct</em>

<em></em>

<em>Others are incorrect</em>

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