The probability that her first treat is jelly is 4/20. Since she eats the candy and does not replace it, the probability the second treat is jelly would be 3/19 (1 less jelly and 1 less total candies). You would then multiply (4/20) by (3/19). That is your answer.
Answer: 8.6:8.6
Explanation:
1:n is the form you want.
n is 8.6. change the n value so it is 1:8.6
1 is 1 times bigger than 8.6
8.6 times 1 is 8.6
so you've got 8.6:8.6
your welcome, i hope this helps
It would be 20.15 because the 65% of 31 is 20.15
Answer:
-1
Step-by-step explanation:
First we combine like terms, so y2 - 5y = - 3y
Now we get - 3y = 3
Then we divide both sides by - 3
Now we get y =-1
Answer:
1/2
Step-by-step explanation:
divide the numerator & denominator by 4
