Answer:
A. (1, -2)
Step-by-step explanation:
We can substitute the variables of x and y into the inequality of .
Let's start with A, -2 being y and 1 being x.
The absolute value of 1 is 1, and negating that gets us -1.
Indeed, -2 is less than -1! So A is a solution to the inequality.
Let's test the rest of them, just in case.
For B:
Absolute value of 1 is 1, negating it is -1.
-1 is EQUAL to -1, not less than it, so is not a solution to the inequality.
Let's try C.
Absolute value of 1 is 1, negating it is -1.
0 is GREATER than -1, so that is not a solution to the inequality.
Hope this helped!
Answer:
o.4 and 3.4
Step-by-step explanation:
eye ballss
Answer:
V≈628.32
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
D. A(n) = P + (n-1)i*P
Step-by-step explanation:
The formula to calculate the simple interest is:
Replace i by , then
SI = Pni
where n is the number of years.
So, for n-1 years, the simple interest is:
SI = P(n-1)*i
The Total amount is:
A(n) = P + (n-1)i*P
The empirical rule states that approximately 68/95/99.7% of a normal distribution lies within 1/2/3 standard deviations. So the answer is 68%.