1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Luda [366]
3 years ago
13

Sandra found the difference of 12.7 – 4.705. She added the difference to 1.06. What is her final answer?

Mathematics
2 answers:
pickupchik [31]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

9.055

Step-by-step explanation:

12.7 - 4.705 = 7.995

7.995 + 1.06 = <u>9.055</u>

Elanso [62]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

9.055

Step-by-step explanation:

12.7 - 4.705 = 7.995

7.995 + 1.06 = 9.055

You might be interested in
Can some one help me with this I need help with it it's due tomorrow so plz help me
Fynjy0 [20]
Add the two and you should get 2 and 7/16
7 0
3 years ago
I)3 by x-1=4 by x+1<br>ii)X by 2-Xby3=2​
Lena [83]

Answer:

Hey blinkkkkkkkkkkkkk

3 0
3 years ago
Perform the indicated operation. 4/11 * 10/8
Sliva [168]
So basically what you wanna do is multiply across giving you 40/88 which you can simplify down to 5/11 
Hope this helps :D
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Estimate the sum to the nearest whole number: 0.870 + 3.2<br> A) 2 <br> B) 3 <br> C) 4 <br> D) 5
vfiekz [6]

the answer is C) four

6 0
3 years ago
Stacy uses a spinner with six equal sections numbered 2, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 to play a game. Write a probability model for this ex
allsm [11]

Answer:

We estimate to have 8.33 times the number 6 in 50 trials.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let us consider a success to get a 6. In this case, note that the probability of having a 6 in one spin is 1/6. We can consider the number of 6's in 50 spins to be a binomial random variable. Then, let X to be the number of trials we get a 6 out of 50 trials. Then, we have the following model.

P(X=k) = \binom{50}{k}(\frac{1}{6})^k(\frac{5}{6})^{50-k}

We will estimate the number of times that she spins a 6 as the expected value of this random variable.

Recall that if we have X as a binomial random variable of n trials with a probability of success of p, then it's expected value is np.

Then , in this case, with n=50 and p=1/6 we expect to have \frac{50}{6} number of times of having a 6, which is 8.33.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Other questions:
  • Can i get the answer please
    14·1 answer
  • Mrs.Davis bought 6 pounds of grapes for 18 dallors at this rate how much would 72 ounces of grapes have cost
    10·1 answer
  • Find the area of shaded sector of the circle?
    7·1 answer
  • numerator of a fraction that has a square root in it (but you don’t have to simplify the denominator with the square root) I alw
    11·1 answer
  • Three boxes of cereal cost $9.57. How much do five boxes cost
    7·1 answer
  • Jerome Anthony are reading the same book drumhedz already read 46 pages in feet and additional 7 page per night Cindy has read 2
    14·1 answer
  • Help please! Help me please! I don’t understand! I’ll give you brainly!
    7·2 answers
  • What slope of this line <br> x 9 13 17 21<br> y -24 -21 -18 -15
    13·1 answer
  • Timmy is helping his grandpa on his chicken farm. Timmy has to pack 66 eggs into cartons, minimizing the packing cost. He can us
    8·1 answer
  • Rasberry Crazy Ants, a species found in wall sockets, cellphones, and television sets are
    13·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!