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2 years ago

CAN SOME ONE HELP ME PLZZZ IM STRUGGLEING ON MY EDGE

Mathematics

1 answer:

Sladkaya [172]2 years ago

4 0

Answer:

x+9/x+1

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the denominator is the same, just add the numerator while keeping the denominator the same.

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Which unit would you use to measure the weight of a car? mg kg g km

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Step-by-step explanation:

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2 years ago

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A. Use composition to prove whether or not the functions are inverses of each other. B. Express the domain of the compositions u

Kryger [21]

Given: $f(x) = \frac{1}{x-2}$

$g(x) = \frac{2x+1}{x}$

A.)Consider

$f(g(x))= f(\frac{2x+1}{x} )$

$f(\frac{2x+1}{x} )=\frac{1}{(\frac{2x+1}{x})-2}$

$f(\frac{2x+1}{x} )=\frac{1}{\frac{2x+1-2x}{x}}$

$f(\frac{2x+1}{x} )=\frac{x}{1}$

$f(\frac{2x+1}{x} )=1$

Also,

$g(f(x))= g(\frac{1}{x-2} )$

$g(\frac{1}{x-2} )= \frac{2(\frac{1}{x-2}) +1 }{\frac{1}{x-2}}$

$g(\frac{1}{x-2} )= \frac{\frac{2+x-2}{x-2} }{\frac{1}{x-2}}$

$g(\frac{1}{x-2} )= \frac{x }{1}$

$g(\frac{1}{x-2} )= x$

Since, $f(g(x))=g(f(x))=x$

Therefore, both functions are inverses of each other.

For the Composition function $f(g(x)) = f(\frac{2x+1}{x} )=x$

Since, the function $f(g(x))$ is not defined for $x=0$ .

Therefore, the domain is $(-\infty,0)\cup(0,\infty)$

For the Composition function $g(f(x)) =g(\frac{1}{x-2} )=x$

Since, the function $g(f(x))$ is not defined for $x=2$ .

Therefore, the domain is $(-\infty,2)\cup(2,\infty)$

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3 years ago

. Office productivity is relatively low when the employees feel no stress about their work or job security. However, high levels

Ray Of Light [21]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The plot chart below best represents the relationship between stress and productivity in the workplace. As seen in the chart both high and low levels of stress equate to very low productivity levels for employees in the workplace. While just enough stress creates very productive employees. This tends to be because employees are worried about the possibility of losing their jobs so they work hard in order to keep the job but are not so worried that they think it will happen tomorrow and become burned out.

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3 years ago

Explain why if a runner completes a 6.2â-mi race in 32 âmin, then he must have been running at exactly 11 âmi/hr at least twice

MA_775_DIABLO [31]

Answer:

Accelerating to top speed, deaccelerating to finish line.

Step-by-step explanation:

If the runner kept a constant speed of 11 mph for the whole duration of his run (32 minutes), the distance he would have covered is:

$d=11*\frac{32}{60}\\d= 5.87\ mi$

This means that, in order to run the full 6.2 miles, the runner needs to reach a speed over 11 mph. Assume he starts from rest, while accelerating the runner reaches, and the surpasses, the 11 mph mark. Since his speed at the finish line is zero, the runner has to deaccelerate from his current running speed (which should be higher than 11 mph), passing through 11 mph and reaching zero at the finish line.

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3 years ago

3 times 80,000,00 equal what

RoseWind [281]

Answer:

240000000

Step-by-step explanation:

3*80000000

=240000000

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