Answer:
yes 7 787887888/1,000,000,000
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
= ∑ 6*n*x^n-1
Radius of convergence = 1
Step-by-step explanation:
f(x) = 6(1-x)^-2
Maclaurin series can be expressed using the formula
f(x) = f(0) + f '(0)x + f ''(0)/ 2! (x)^2 + f '''(0)/3! (x)^3 + f (4)(0) 4! x4 + .
attached below is the detailed solution
Radius of convergence = 1
The Maclaurin series for f(x) = 6 / (1 - x )^2 = ∑ 6*n*x^n-1 ( boundary ; ∞ and n = 1 )
Answer:
The probability that there are more heads than tails is equal to .
Step-by-step explanation:
Since the number of flips is an odd number, there can't be an equal number of heads and tails. In other words, there are either
- more tails than heads, or,
- more heads than tails.
Let the event that there are more heads than tails be . (i.e., not A) denotes that there are more tails than heads. Either one of these two cases must happen. As a result, .
Additionally, since this coin is fair, the probability of getting a head is equal to the probability of getting a tail on each toss. That implies that (for example)
- the probability of getting 7 heads out of 15 tosses will be the same as
- the probability of getting 7 tails out of 15 tosses.
Due to this symmetry,
- the probability of getting more heads than tails (A is true) is equal to
- the probability of getting more tails than heads (A is not true.)
In other words .
Combining the two equations:
,
.
In other words, the probability that there are more heads than tails is equal to .
This conclusion can be verified using the cumulative probability function for binomial distributions with as the probability of success.
.
Hey there :)
f (x) = 5x² - 2x
g (x) = 3x² + x - 4
( f + g )( x ) is f ( x ) + g ( x )
5x² - 2x + 3x² + x - 4
Combine like-terms
5x² + 3x² - 2x + x - 4
8x² - x - 4
Your option will be the third option
Answer:
66.42°
Step-by-step explanation:
Given
cos ? = , then
? = ( ) ≈ 66.42° ( to the nearest hundredth )