Answer:
300
Step-by-step explanation:
60,000 / 200 = 300
Answer:
$17,277.07
Step-by-step explanation:
Present value of annuity is the present worth of cash flow that is to be received in the future, if future value is known, rate of interest is r and time is n then PV of annuity is
PV of annuity = ![\frac{P[1-(1+r)^{-n}]}{r}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7BP%5B1-%281%2Br%29%5E%7B-n%7D%5D%7D%7Br%7D)
= ![\frac{3000[1-(1+0.10)^{-9}]}{0.10}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B3000%5B1-%281%2B0.10%29%5E%7B-9%7D%5D%7D%7B0.10%7D)
= ![\frac{3000[1-(1.10)^{-9}]}{0.10}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B3000%5B1-%281.10%29%5E%7B-9%7D%5D%7D%7B0.10%7D)
= ![\frac{3000[1-0.4240976184]}{0.10}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B3000%5B1-0.4240976184%5D%7D%7B0.10%7D)
= 
= 
= 17,277.071448 ≈ $17,277.07
The LCD of 3/5 1/10and 1/2 is 10. This is because 10 is the smallest number that 5, 10 and 2 are all divisible by.
This is how it would work to find answer
You divide 225 by 45 and the answer you would get is 5 so
It will take 5h for the train to travel
hope this helps