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umka2103 [35]
3 years ago
9

In contouring, it is necessary to measure position and not velocity for feedback.

Engineering
1 answer:
EastWind [94]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

(1). False, (2). True, (3). False, (4). False, (5). True.

Explanation:

The term ''contouring'' in this question does not have to do with makeup but it has to deal with the measurement of all surfaces in planes. It is a measurement in which the rough and the contours are being measured. So, let us check each questions again.

(1). In contouring, it is necessary to measure position and not velocity for feedback.

ANSWER : b =>False. IT IS NECESSARY TO MEASURE BOTH FOR FEEDBACK.

(2). In contouring during 2-axis NC machining, the two axes are moved at the same speed to achieve the desired contour.

ANSWER: a=> True.

(3). Job shop is another term for process layout.

ANSWER: b => False

JOB SHOP IS A FLEXIBLE PROCESS THAT IS BEING USED during manufacturing process and are meant for job Production. PROCESS LAYOUT is used in increasing Efficiency.

(4). Airplanes are normally produced using group technology or cellular layout.

ANSWER: b => False.

(5). In manufacturing, value-creating time is greater than takt time.

ANSWER: a => True.

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An unknown immiscible liquid seeps into the bottom of an open oil tank. Some measurements indicate that the depth of the unknown
barxatty [35]

Answer:

The specific weight of unknown liquid is found to be 15 KN/m³

Explanation:

The total pressure in tank is measured to be 65 KPa in the tank. But, the total pressure will be equal to the sum of pressures due to both oil and unknown liquid.

Total Pressure = Pressure of oil + Pressure of unknown liquid

65 KPa = (Specific Weight of oil)(depth of oil) + (Specific Weight of unknown liquid)(depth of unknown liquid)

65 KN/m² = (8.5 KN/m³)(5 m) + (Specific Weight of Unknown Liquid)(1.5 m)

(Specific Weight of Unknown Liquid)(1.5 m) = 65 KN/m² - 42.5 KN/m²

(Specific Weight of Unknown Liquid) = (22.5 KN/m²)/1.5 m

<u>Specific Weight of Unknown Liquid = 15 KN/m³</u>  

4 0
3 years ago
Please help <br> please i need to turn this in
grigory [225]

Answer:  101 means "introductory something". The allusion is to a college course with the course code 101, which in the American system and probably others indicates an introductory course, often with no prerequisites.

Explanation:

The name Topher means Christ Bearer and is of American origin. Topher is a name that's been used primarily by parents who are considering baby names for boys. Short form of Christopher.

I am not sure but if this is a trick question then the answer lies with his name, so this is the best I got. Hope it helps!

5 0
3 years ago
A 100 meter dash is run on a track in the direction of the vector = 2 + 7 . The wind velocity is = 5 + km/hr. The rules say that
Scrat [10]

Answer:joe mamma

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
In a tensile test on a steel specimen, true strain = 0.12 at a stress of 250 MPa. When true stress = 350 MPa, true strain = 0.26
scZoUnD [109]

Answer:

The strength coefficient is 625 and the strain-hardening exponent is 0.435

Explanation:

Given the true strain is 0.12 at 250 MPa stress.

Also, at 350 MPa the strain is 0.26.

We need to find  (K) and the (n).

\sigma =K\epsilon^n

We will plug the values in the formula.

250=K\times (0.12)^n\\350=K\times (0.26)^n

We will solve these equation.

K=\frac{250}{(0.12)^n} plug this value in 350=K\times (0.26)^n

350=\frac{250}{(0.12)^n}\times (0.26)^n\\ \\\frac{350}{250}=\frac{(0.26)^n}{(0.12)^n}\\  \\1.4=(2.17)^n

Taking a natural log both sides we get.

ln(1.4)=ln(2.17)^n\\ln(1.4)=n\times ln(2.17)\\n=\frac{ln(1.4)}{ln(2.17)}\\ n=0.435

Now, we will find value of K

K=\frac{250}{(0.12)^n}

K=\frac{250}{(0.12)^{0.435}}\\ \\K=\frac{250}{0.40}\\\\K=625

So, the strength coefficient is 625 and the strain-hardening exponent is 0.435.

5 0
3 years ago
stimate the maximum efficiency of an automobile engine that has a compression ratio of 5:1.0. Assume the engine operates accordi
Fed [463]

Answer:

Efficiency based on Otto cycle.

Effotto = 47.47%

Explanation:

Efficiency based on Otto cycle.

effotto = 1 – (V2 / V1)^γ-1

effotto = 1 – (1 / 5)^1.4 - 1

effotto = 47.47%

5 0
2 years ago
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