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Elenna [48]
3 years ago
13

What is the answer of the rectangular prism? 3 1/3 times 1 2/5

Mathematics
1 answer:
Sunny_sXe [5.5K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

3 1\3 = 1

1 2\5 = 2/5 ..........................

You might be interested in
Simplify 24 − (23 + 22).<br> HELP FAST
RSB [31]

Answer:-21

Step-by-step explanation:

23+22=45

45-24=21

then flip 24 and 45 to get negative

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
for the following questions, determine how many solutions each equation has. if one solution, state the value of x. x+6+8=2x-x+1
vichka [17]

Answer:

infinite solutions

Step-by-step explanation:

x+6+8=2x-x+14

x+6+8=x+14

x+14=x+14

14=14

or

x=x

plug in any number

2+6+8=2(2)-2+14

16=16

another example

8+6+8=2(8)-8=14

22=22

5 0
3 years ago
suppose X and Y are independent random variables, both with normal distributions. If X has a mean of 45 with a standard deviatio
djyliett [7]

Answer:

0.9772 = 97.72% probability that a randomly generated value of X is greater than a randomly generated value of Y

Step-by-step explanation:

When the distribution is normal, we use the z-score formula.

In a set with mean \mu and standard deviation \sigma, the zscore of a measure X is given by:

Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the pvalue, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

In this question:

\mu_X = 45, \sigma_X = 4, \mu_Y = 35, \sigma_Y = 3

What is the probability that a randomly generated value of X is greater than a randomly generated value of Y

This means that the subtraction of X by Y has to be positive.

When we subtract two normal variables, the mean is the subtraction of their means, and the standard deviation is the square root of the sum of their variances. So

\mu = \mu_X - \mu_Y = 45 - 35 = 0

\sigma = \sqrt{\sigma_X^2+\sigma_Y^2} = \sqrt{25} = 5

We want to find P(X > 0), that is, 1 subtracted by the pvalue of Z when X = 0. So

Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}

Z = \frac{0 - 10}{5}

Z = -2

Z = -2 has a pvalue of 0.0228

1 - 0.0228 = 0.9772

0.9772 = 97.72% probability that a randomly generated value of X is greater than a randomly generated value of Y

4 0
3 years ago
The weekly amount spent by a small company for in-state travel has approximately a normal distribution with mean $1450 and stand
Llana [10]

Answer:

0.0903

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that :

The mean = 1450

The standard deviation = 220

sample mean = 1560

P(X > 1560) = P( Z > \dfrac{x - \mu}{\sigma})

P(X > 1560) = P(Z > \dfrac{1560 - 1450}{220})

P(X > 1560) = P(Z > \dfrac{110}{220})

P(X> 1560) = P(Z > 0.5)

P(X> 1560) = 1 - P(Z < 0.5)

From the z tables;

P(X> 1560) = 1 - 0.6915

P(X> 1560) = 0.3085

Let consider the given number of weeks = 52

Mean \mu_x = np = 52 × 0.3085 = 16.042

The standard deviation =  \sqrt {n \time p (1-p)}

The standard deviation = \sqrt {52 \times 0.3085 (1-0.3085)}

The standard deviation = 3.3306

Let Y be a random variable that proceeds in a binomial distribution, which denotes the number of weeks in a year that exceeds $1560.

Then;

Pr ( Y > 20) = P( z > 20)

Pr ( Y > 20) = P(Z > \dfrac{20.5 - 16.042}{3.3306})

Pr ( Y > 20) = P(Z >1 .338)

From z tables

P(Y > 20) \simeq 0.0903

7 0
3 years ago
Ms. Liebowitz has a choice of driving or flying from Morgantown, West Virginia to Washington, D.C. for a one-day business trip.
den301095 [7]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

If she travels by air, she will be able to work seven hours in D.C. work four hours once there. Her expected income from each hour of work in D.C. is $40. This means that the total amount that she earns in 7 hours would be

40 × 7 = $280

if she drives, she will only have time to work four hours once there. This means that the total amount that she earns in 4 hours would be

40 × 4 = $160

The difference in both amounts would be

280 - 160 = $120

she will chose to fly if and only if the price differential (air cost minus driving cost) is less than $120

7 0
3 years ago
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