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crimeas [40]
3 years ago
12

Matthew is a single taxpayer who earns $75,000 per year in taxable income working as an accountant. He has $2,000 in long-term c

apital gains on an investment
that cost him $10,000 to purchase. Compute the tax on his investment to determine the after-tax return on investment (ROI).

Single Taxpayers:

Qualified Dividends and

Long-Term Capital Gains

Income

Tax Rate

Bracket

0% 0 to 38,600

15%

38,601 to

425,800

20% > 425,800

A

14%

B. 16.5%

C 17%

D. 18.9%

E 20%
Mathematics
1 answer:
amm18123 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Option C,17% is correct

Step-by-step explanation:

The tax on his investment is  15% of his long-term gains on investment since his total taxable income is  $77,000 ($75,000+$2,000).

tax on investment gain=15%*$2000=$300

after tax gain on investment =$2000-$300=$1700

The return on investment of $10,000=after tax gain on investment/cost of investment

after tax gain is $1700

cost of investment is $10,000

return on investment=$1,700/$10,000=17%

The correct option is C,17% return on investment of $10,000

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Step-by-step explanation:

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ON=64+16=80

(32+x)/x=80/16

32+x=5x

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x=8

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Jenna drove 35 miles in 30 minutes. At this rate, how many miles will she drive in 1 hour?
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Answer:

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Suppose you have two urns with poker chips in them. Urn I contains two red chips and four white chips. Urn II contains three red
Neporo4naja [7]

Answer:

Multiple answers

Step-by-step explanation:

The original urns have:

  1. Urn 1 = 2 red + 4 white = 6 chips
  2. Urn 2 = 3 red + 1 white = 4 chips

We take one chip from the first urn, so we have:

The probability of take a red one is : \frac{1}{3} (2 red from 6 chips(2/6=1/2))

For a white one is: \frac{2}{3}(4 white from 6 chips(4/6=(2/3))

Then we put this chip into the second urn:

We have two possible cases:

  • First if the chip we got from the first urn was white. The urn 2 now has 3 red + 2 whites = 5 chips
  • Second if the chip we got from the first urn was red. The urn two now has 4 red + 1 white = 5 chips

If we select a chip from the urn two:

  • In the first case the probability of taking a white one is of:  \frac{2}{5} = 40%  ( 2 whites of 5 chips)
  • In the second case the probability of taking a white one is of:  \frac{1}{5} = 20%  ( 1 whites of 5 chips)

This problem is a dependent event because the final result depends of the first chip we got from the urn 1.

For the fist case we multiply :

\frac{4}{6} x \frac{2}{5} = \frac{4}{15} = 26.66%   ( \frac{4}{6} the probability of taking a white chip from the urn 1, \frac{2}{5}  the probability of taking a white chip from urn two)

For the second case we multiply:

\frac{1}{3} x \frac{1}{5} = \frac{1}{30} = .06%   ( \frac{1}{3} the probability of taking a red chip from the urn 1, \frac{1}{5}   the probability of taking a white chip from the urn two)

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