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valina [46]
3 years ago
15

I’m sorry I keep asking for help I’m not at my best self right now. Can you guys please help me again?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Semenov [28]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

which ones you want solved? all?

Step-by-step explanation:

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Step-by-step explanation:

you basically just simplify the exponents first, and then simplify from there.

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Picture is question help!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
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The correct answer is 1 mm Hg per year.
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4 years ago
Let T : V → W be a linear transformation from vector space V into vector space W.
wel

Explanation:

Since {v1,...,vp} is linearly dependent, there exist scalars a1,...,ap, with not all of them being 0 such that a1v1+a2v2+...+apvp = 0. Using the linearity of T we have that

a1*T(v1)+a2*T(v1) + ... + ap*T(vp) = T(a1v19+T(a2v2)+...+T(avp) = T(a1v1+a2v2+...+apvp) = T(0) = 0.

Since at least one ai is different from 0, we obtain a non trivial linear combination that eliminates T(v1) , ..., T(vp). That proves that {T(v1) , ..., T(vp)} is a linearly dependent set of W.

7 0
3 years ago
In a weekly lottery, ten ping-pong balls numbered 0 to 9 are placed in each of six containers, and one ping-pong ball is drawn f
sukhopar [10]
He will have a 1/531,441 chance of winning next week.

There are 10 balls in each container; for 6 containers, this gives us 10^6 = 1,000,000.  There is 1 correct combination of balls, so his chance the first week is 1/1,000,000.

The second week, 1 ball is removed from each container; this will give us 9^6 = 531,441 chances.  There is 1 correct combination, so he will have a 1/531,441 chance of winning.
6 0
3 years ago
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I need help with this question, I will give brainliest
PolarNik [594]

Answer:

3

Step-by-step explanation:

trust me

5 0
4 years ago
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