Binomial distribution formula: P(x) = (n k) p^k * (1 - p)^n - k
a) Probability that four parts are defective = 0.01374
P(4 defective) = (25 4) (0.04)^4 * (0.96)^21
P(4 defective) = 0.01374
b) Probability that at least one part is defective = 0.6396
Find the probability that 0 parts are defective and subtract that probability from 1.
P(0 defective) = (25 0) (0.04)^0 * (0.96)^25
P(0 defective) = 0.3604
1 - 0.3604 = 0.6396
c) Probability that 25 parts are defective = approximately 0
P(25 defective) = (25 25) (0.04)^25 * (0.96)^0
P(25 defective) = approximately 0
d) Probability that at most 1 part is defective = 0.7358
Find the probability that 0 and 1 parts are defective and add them together.
P(0 defective) = 0.3604 (from above)
P(1 defective) = (25 1) (0.04)^1 * (0.96)^24
P(1 defective) = 0.3754
P(at most 1 defective) = 0.3604 + 0.3754 = 0.7358
e) Mean = 1 | Standard Deviation = 0.9798
mean = n * p
mean = 25 * 0.04 = 1
stdev = 
stdev =
= 0.9798
Hope this helps!! :)
Answer:
1 ; 7 /17
Step-by-step explanation:
17 balls numbered 1 through 17
Picking without replacement :
If the second ball picked = 4
P(first ball has a smaller number)
Numbers less Than = (3, 2, 1)
P(number less than second ball Given 4 is drawn for second ball) :
= (3/17 * 1/16) ÷ (3/17 * 1/16) +) 14/17 * 0)
= (3 / 272) / (3 /272) * 0
= 3 / 272 * 272 / 3
= 1
2.)
(8/17 * 7/8) ÷ (8/17 * 7/8) + (9/17 * 1/17)
7/17 ÷ (7 /17) + 10/17
7 /17 ÷ 17/17
7/17 ÷ 1
7 /17
I think that would be a right angle triangle or is that not what it is meaning
The answer is FALSE, the mode in a sequence is the number that appears most often; the mode is 2.
Given that the price per day is $15, to make an expression, all you’d have to do is plug in how many days you spent at fun factory to figure out how much money was spent
Here is the expression: 15x
Here is an example: 15 x 3 (plug in 3 for x)
15 x 3 = 45
Making 3 days a total of $45 dollars
Hope this helps you
Brainliest would be appreciated!
-AaronWiseIsBae