I think it’s d because it’s like similar
Using a binomial distribution considering there's a 30% chance it will rain on any of the three days:
<span>The probability of it raining on 0 days is (1)(0.7)(0.7)(0.7) = 34.3%. </span>
<span>The probability of it raining on 1 day is (3)(0.3)(0.7)(0.7) = 44.1%. </span>
<span>The probability of it raining on 2 days is (3)(0.3)(0.3)(0.7) = 18.9%. </span>
<span>The probability of it raining on 3 days is (1)(0.3)(0.3)(0.3) = 2.7%. </span>
<span>There's a 65.7% chance that it will rain at least once over the three-day period.</span>
The answer is definitely 60%
2t+3n=9 2(2)+3n=9
+5t-3n=5 (the 3n cancel out) 4+3n=9
7t=14 3n=5
t=2 n=5/3 or 1.67
