Answer:
The solution is ![\frac{1}{10} * tan^{-1}[\frac{e^{2x}}{5} ] + C](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B10%7D%20%2A%20tan%5E%7B-1%7D%5B%5Cfrac%7Be%5E%7B2x%7D%7D%7B5%7D%20%5D%20%2B%20%20C)
Step-by-step explanation:
From the question
The function given is 
The indefinite integral is mathematically represented as

Now let 
=> 
=> 
So

![= \frac{1}{2} \frac{tan^{-1} [\frac{u}{5} ]}{5} + C](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%7D%20%5Cfrac%7Btan%5E%7B-1%7D%20%5B%5Cfrac%7Bu%7D%7B5%7D%20%5D%7D%7B5%7D%20%20%2B%20%20C)
Now substituting for u
![\frac{1}{10} * tan^{-1}[\frac{e^{2x}}{5} ] + C](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B10%7D%20%2A%20tan%5E%7B-1%7D%5B%5Cfrac%7Be%5E%7B2x%7D%7D%7B5%7D%20%5D%20%2B%20%20C)
Hi i don’t speak spanish but hi....?
We have that
<span>Circle 1: center (8, 5) and radius 6
</span><span>Circle 2: center (−2, 1) and radius 2
we know that
the equation of a circle is
(x-h)</span>²+(y-k)²=r²
for the circle 1---------> (x-8)²+(y-5)²=36
for the circle 2---------> (x+2)²+(y-1)²=4
using a graph tool
see the attached figure
Part A)<span>What transformations can be applied to Circle 1 to prove that the circles are similar?
we know that
r1/r2---------> 6/2------> 3
</span><span>
to prove that the circle 1 and circle 2 are similar, the radius of circle 1 </span>must be divided by 3 and translate the center of the circle 1 (10) units to the left and (4) units down
<span>
the answer part A) is
</span>
the radius of circle 1 must be divided by 3 and translate the center of the circle 1 (10) units to the left and (4) units down
Part B) <span>What scale factor does the dilation from Circle 1 to Circle 2 have?
the answer Part B) is
the scale factor is (3/1)</span>