Answer:
-0.038 N
Explanation:
F=K Q1 Q2/r^2 by COULOMB'S LAW
F= 9×10^9×1×10^-5×-1.5×10^-5/(6)^2
F= -0.038 N
Explanation:
The expression is :

A =[LT], B=[L²T⁻¹], C=[LT²]
Using dimensional of A, B and C in above formula. So,
![A=B^nC^m\\\\\ [LT]=[L^2T^{-1}]^n[LT^2}]^m\\\\\ [LT]=L^{2n}T^{-n}L^mT^{2m}\\\\\ [LT]=L^{2n+m}T^{2m-n}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=A%3DB%5EnC%5Em%5C%5C%5C%5C%5C%20%5BLT%5D%3D%5BL%5E2T%5E%7B-1%7D%5D%5En%5BLT%5E2%7D%5D%5Em%5C%5C%5C%5C%5C%20%5BLT%5D%3DL%5E%7B2n%7DT%5E%7B-n%7DL%5EmT%5E%7B2m%7D%5C%5C%5C%5C%5C%20%5BLT%5D%3DL%5E%7B2n%2Bm%7DT%5E%7B2m-n%7D)
Comparing the powers both sides,
2n+m=1 ...(1)
2m-n=1 ...(2)
Now, solving equation (1) and (2) we get :

Hence, the correct option is (E).
Acceleration = (final velocity-initial velocity)/time taken
=(30-10)/5
= 4m/s2
Hope this helps
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Answer:
frequency is .167/s for this wave
The answer to your question is C
Because it goes from point A to point C to make one wavelenght