For 1 play, the chance of gaining $8 is 4/38, while the chance of losing the $1 is 34/38. Therefore, the expected value is ($8)(4/38) + ($-1)(34/38) = $(-1/19). Over 50 plays, which are mutually independent of each other, we multiply the number of plays by the expected value to get $(-50/19) = $-2.63.
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7 0

3 years ago

What is 20 - {4 + [4 + (10/2)]}

vampirchik [111]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Plugged it in the calc!

Hope it helps :)

3 0

3 years ago

Jack divided his fortune of 92,000 into 8 equal portions.He gave 4 portions to his wife , 1 portion to his son and divided the r

AleksAgata [21]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that Jack divided his fortune of 92,000 into 8 equal portions.He gave 4 portions to his wife , 1 portion to his son and divided the remaining portions equally among 5 charities.

The portion son gets = $1/8 of 92000 = 11500 $$

Charity on the whole gets = 3 portions = $3/8 *92000 = 34500$$

Each charity gets = $34500/5 = 6900$$

Thus we find son gets 11500 dollars while each charity gets 6900 dollars.

The difference = $11500-6900\\= 4600$

4600 dollars he got more.

5 0

3 years ago