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jasenka [17]
3 years ago
5

Please help me out with this question please...

Mathematics
2 answers:
aleksley [76]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: B) No, every x-value does not have exactly one y-value

Explanation:

We have the input x = 3 map to the outputs y = 2 and y = 8 at the same time. A function is only possible if any given x value goes to exactly one y value.

Put another way, if x repeats itself, then we don't have a function. This assumes we don't repeat the same y value when we repeat the x value.

anastassius [24]3 years ago
3 0
I believe it’s the second option because there are two 3’s with different outputs
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babunello [35]
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3 years ago
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3 years ago
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Vera_Pavlovna [14]
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5 0
3 years ago
If 52 is 130% of a number, is the number greater then or less the 52? Explain
olga_2 [115]
X= a number

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Hope this helps! :)
3 0
4 years ago
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garik1379 [7]

Answer:

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but in third option y=x there is no exponential form

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