Please help me out with this question please...

Mathematics

2 answers:

aleksley [76]3 years ago

7 0

Answer: B) No, every x-value does not have exactly one y-value

Explanation:

We have the input x = 3 map to the outputs y = 2 and y = 8 at the same time. A function is only possible if any given x value goes to exactly one y value.

Put another way, if x repeats itself, then we don't have a function. This assumes we don't repeat the same y value when we repeat the x value.

anastassius [24]3 years ago

3 0

I believe it’s the second option because there are two 3’s with different outputs

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