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V125BC [204]
2 years ago
14

2

Mathematics
1 answer:
Illusion [34]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

40 pages

20% is 8 pages

1/4 is 10

22 pages for articles

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If f(x) = 3x2 – 4 and g(x) = 2x - 6, what is g(f(2))?
saveliy_v [14]

Answer:

10

Step-by-step explanation:

find out f(2)

f(2)= (3×2×2) - 4= 8

then g(8) = 16 - 6= 10

4 0
3 years ago
The mean percent of childhood asthma prevalence in 43 cities is 2.16%. A random sample of 31 of these cities is selected. What i
IceJOKER [234]

Probability that the mean childhood asthma prevalence for the sample is greater than 2.6% is 0.0357 or 3.57 %.

What is Probability ?

Probability is the measure of likelihood of an event.

For a Normal Distribution ,

the z-score formula is given by

\rm Z = \dfrac{X - \mu }{\sigma}

Here \rm \mu\\ is the mean and \rm \sigma\\ is the standard deviation .

It is the measure of the deviation of the data from its central tendency.

Each z-score has a probability value.

It is given in the question that

Mean of 2.16% =  \rm \mu\\ = 2.16

Standard deviation of 1.36% means that  \rm \sigma\\ = 1.36

For Sample of 31 the value of standard deviation is \rm s = \dfrac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}}

s = 1.36/√31

s = 0.2442

Substituting the values

Z = (2.6 -2.16)/0.2442

Z =1.8

the p value from the graph of z and p , 0.9643

To determine value of probability  more than X is 1 - 0.9643= 0.0357

the

Probability that the mean childhood asthma prevalence for the sample is greater than 2.6% is 0.0357.

To know more about Probability

brainly.com/question/11234923

#SPJ1

6 0
2 years ago
The ratio 63:28 in simplest form is
Bezzdna [24]
It is 9:4.

Reason: divide both numbers by a common multiple, which is 7. 
6 0
3 years ago
Is 1/4 to the 0 power bigger then 1
marishachu [46]

Answer:

yes it is

Step-by-step explanation:

anything took to zerk is zero, 1 is higher thsn zero

4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Twelve percent of the population is left handed. Approximate the probability that there are at least 20 left-handers in a school
DochEvi [55]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

We would assume a binomial distribution for the handedness of the population. Let x be a random variable representing the type of handedness in the population. The probability of success, p is that a randomly chosen person is left handed only. Then probability of failure is that a chosen person is not left handed only(right handed only or both).

p = 12/100 = 0.12

number of success, x = 20

n = 200

the probability that there are at least 20 left-handers is expressed as P(x ≥ 20)

From the binomial probability calculator,

P(x ≥ 20) = 0.84

8 0
3 years ago
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