Answer:
Explanation:
MIRR equation is given by :
[(FV +ve cashflow / PV -ve cashflow)^(1/n)] - 1
FV +ve cashflow = Future value of positive cashflow at reinvestment rate
PV - ve cashflow = Present value of negative cashflow at finance rate
n = number of periods
The Modified Internal Rate of Return is a devised modification for the Internal rate of return, IRR which gives rate of return on percentage and overcomes the limitations of the IRR formula.
It's a method where <span>subordinates share a significant degree of decision-making power with their immediate superiors
One positive benefit of the employee involvement and participation is that companies will prepare more employees to understand the company's operational method and make more potential leaders for the company if it choose to expand in the future</span>
Answer:
y = (x / 100) + 100
Explanation:
First, we need to know the amount of money that it spends on advertising for each extra unit sold. That would be equal to: 2,500 / 25 = 100
This value will be the divisor of the advertising expense (x) to obtain the variable factor of the number of units.
Since 100 units are already sold without investment, this value is taken as fixed and added.
And with the previous data, the formula remains:
y = (x / 100) + 100
Answer:
d. perfectly elastic.
Explanation:
Demand is perfectly elastic if it at the current price, the product is sold out but if there is a change in price demand falls to zero. the demand curve is horizontal
Demand in perfectly inelastic if there is no change in quantity demanded regardless of the change in price.
If the absolute value of price elasticity is greater than one, it means demand is elastic. Elastic demand means that quantity demanded is sensitive to price changes.
Demand is inelastic if a small change in price has little or no effect on quantity demanded. The absolute value of elasticity would be less than one
Demand is unit elastic if a small change in price has an equal and proportionate effect on quantity demanded.
Answer:
5000 partial depreciation
Explanation:
straight line formula is = <u>cost - scrape value</u>
useful life in years
since there is no residual value (scrape value) therefore, we divide <u>100,000 </u>
5
the answer we get 20000 per year depreciation. but the equipment is bought on 1st oct, and if assume that the year ends on Dec, 31 so it is measure for 3 month depreciation which is 5000.
