Significant figures tells us that about how may digits we can count on to be precise given the uncertainty in our calculations or data measurements.
Since, one inch = 2.54 cm.
This is equivalent as saying that 1.0000000.. inch = 2.540000... cm.
Since the inch to cm conversion doesn't add any uncertainty, so we are free to keep any and all the significant figures.
Since, being an exact number, it has an unlimited number of significant figures and thus when we convert inch to cm we multiply two exact quantities together. Therefore, it will have infinite number of significant figures.
Answer:
48/73
Step-by-step explanation:
cos S in ratio = ?
cos S = Adjacent/hypothenus
adjacent is the dimension of line aside the opposite (the line facing angle S, the hypotenus(longest line)
adjacent = 48
hypothenus = 73
cos S= 48/73
Answer: ![13.8cm^2](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=13.8cm%5E2)
Step-by-step explanation:
The area of a triangle can be calculated with the formula:
![A_{(triangle)}=\frac{b*h}{2}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=A_%7B%28triangle%29%7D%3D%5Cfrac%7Bb%2Ah%7D%7B2%7D)
The base of the triangle is "b" and the height of the triangle is "h",
In the figure you can observe that the base and the height of the triangle are:
![b=6.9cm\\h=4cm](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=b%3D6.9cm%5C%5Ch%3D4cm)
Knowing these values, you can substitute them into
.
Therefore, the area of the triangle is:
![A_{(triangle)}=\frac{(6.9cm)(4cm)}{2}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=A_%7B%28triangle%29%7D%3D%5Cfrac%7B%286.9cm%29%284cm%29%7D%7B2%7D)
![A_{(triangle)}=13.8cm^2](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=A_%7B%28triangle%29%7D%3D13.8cm%5E2)
Answer: It's Already simplified!
I'm pretty sure the answer is no. A function looks like this: f(x) = mx + c. Let's add another function, f(y) = ny + d. If the x-intercept is the same, we can subtract c and d from their respective equations. f(x) = mx, f(y) = ny. If the domains are the same, then x and y can have the same value, so we divide it out. f(x) = m, f(y) = n. Finally, if the ranges are the same, the value of f(x) = f(y). So by the substitution property, m=n. Since all the variables equal each other, both functions are equal to f(x) = mx+c! Therefore, they can only be the same function.
Answer: No