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Vadim26 [7]
3 years ago
12

What is the mapping notation that will transform triangle ABC to triangle A'B'C'?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Kaylis [27]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The transformation is (y,-x)

Step-by-step explanation:

To know the mapping notation, we need to know the coordinates of the image and the pre-image

For the pre-image, we have;

A(3,8)

B(6,8)

C(6,2)

For the image, we have

A’( 8,-3)

B’ (8,-6)

C’ (2,-6)

So let us try and get the transformation from the coordinates

We can see that this is;

(x,y) to (y,-x)

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Answer:

C. H0: µD = 0, HA: µD <0

Step-by-step explanation:

We assume that the paired sample data are simple random samples and that the differences have a distribution that is approximately normal. So for this case is better apply a paired t test.  

A paired t-test is used to compare two population means where you have two samples in which observations in one sample can be paired with observations in the other sample. For example if we have Before-and-after observations (This problem) we can use it.  

Let put some notation  

x=test value for pretest , y = test value for posttest  

x: 66, 94, 87, 84, 76, 88

y: 75, 100, 93, 85, 75, 90  

The system of hypothesis for this case are:  

Null hypothesis: \mu_D \geq 0  

Alternative hypothesis: \mu_D < 0  

Because the difference D is defined as Pretest-Postest. And we want to see if the postets score is higher than the pretest with th training.

The first step is calculate the difference d_i=x_i-y_i and we obtain this:  

d: -9, -6, -6, -1, 1, -2

The second step is calculate the mean difference  

\bar d= \frac{\sum_{i=1}^n d_i}{n}= \frac{-23}{6}=-3.833  

The third step would be calculate the standard deviation for the differences, and we got:  

s_d =\frac{\sum_{i=1}^n (d_i -\bar d)^2}{n-1} =3.763  

The 4 step is calculate the statistic given by :  

t=\frac{\bar d -0}{\frac{s_d}{\sqrt{n}}}=\frac{-3.833 -0}{\frac{3.763}{\sqrt{6}}}=-2.494  

The next step is calculate the degrees of freedom given by:  

df=n-1=6-1=5  

Now we can calculate the p value, since we have a left tailed test the p value is given by:  

p_v =P(t_{(5)}  

The p value is lower than the significance level assumed \alpha=0.05, so then we can conclude that we can reject the null hypothesis. So we can say that the differences between Pretest and Posttest \mu_{pretest}-\mu_{postest} are less than 0.

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The answer is D. (hope this helps :)

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Answer: 146

Step-by-step explanation:

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