Answer:90
Step-by-step explanation:
20+3(7+4)+5+2(7+9)
20+3×11+5+2×16
20+33+5+32
90
Subtract b and then a = (zma) - b
<h3 /><h3>▄▄▄▄▄▄▄▄▄▄▄▄▄▄▄▄▄</h3><h3>Required Solution :</h3>
Let the first even number be 'x' & the second even number be (x + 2)
<u>According to the Question</u>,
⇒x + (x + 2) = 34
⇒x + x + 2 = 34
⇒2x + 2 = 34
⇒2x = 34 - 2
⇒2x = 32
⇒x = 32/2
⇒x = 16
⇒First even number = x = 16
⇒Second even number = (x + 2) = 16 + 2 = 18
<u>∴</u><u> </u><u>The t</u><u>wo consecutive even n</u><u>u</u><u>m</u><u>b</u><u>e</u><u>r</u><u>s</u><u> are 16 & 18</u> ...!
<h3>Verefication : </h3>
As, In our Question it was given that "The sum of two consecutive even numbers is thirty-four". So, as we got our two consecutive even numbers as 16 & 18 ... By this, we can say that these both even numbers should be equals to 34, i.e., 16 + 18 = 34. Hence, The equation which we formed is correct ...!
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To find the probability of NOT drawing a pink bead, you will take the highest probability of 1 and subtract the probability of getting a pink one (1/6).
1 - 1/6 = 5/6
There is a 5/6 probability of NOT getting a pink bead.