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Svetllana [295]
3 years ago
12

Please help! Due Friday

Mathematics
2 answers:
solmaris [256]3 years ago
5 0
For (-1,2) you go to the left one and up two.
For (-3,6) left three up six
For (4,8) right four and up eight
KiRa [710]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

So for each point's numbers you have the x and the y. The first is the x, 2nd y in the parenthesis.

On the graph you start with the x axis, x in the middle is 0 to the left is the negative #'s and on the right: positive. Y axis is top positive, bottom negative! Now put the numbers on the axis' and then plot the points!

Hope this helps!!! :)

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A real estate agent has 12 properties that she shows. She feels that there is a 30% chance of selling any one property during a
Ronch [10]

Answer:

0.2528 = 25.28% probability of selling no more than 2 properties in one week.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each property, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they are sold, or they are not. The chance of selling any one property is independent of selling another property, which means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

A real estate agent has 12 properties that she shows.

This means that n = 12

She feels that there is a 30% chance of selling any one property during a week.

This means that p = 0.3

Compute the probability of selling no more than 2 properties in one week.

2 or less sold, which is:

P(X \leq 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)

In which

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{12,0}.(0.3)^{0}.(0.7)^{12} = 0.0138

P(X = 1) = C_{12,1}.(0.3)^{1}.(0.7)^{11} = 0.0712

P(X = 2) = C_{12,2}.(0.3)^{2}.(0.7)^{10} = 0.1678

Then

P(X \leq 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) = 0.0138 + 0.0712 + 0.1678 = 0.2528

0.2528 = 25.28% probability of selling no more than 2 properties in one week.

8 0
3 years ago
Please answer this now in two minutes
postnew [5]

Answer:

8

Step-by-step explanation:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 quick math

6 0
3 years ago
Find the output when the input is 10
bulgar [2K]
I think it’s 5. I’m not sure
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I have five questions and I need some help. please help
Step2247 [10]
The answer to the question

5 0
3 years ago
If the measure of angle is 38 what is the measure of its complement
iragen [17]
90-38 =52 answer is 52
8 0
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