Answer: C. 84
Step-by-step explanation:
In triangles ABD y BCD:
- AD=CD
- Angle BAD = angle BCD
- BD common side
THEN the triangles are equal because they have two sides and the angle opposite the longest side respectively equal.
CBD = ABD = 42 because the triangles ABD y BCD are equal
ABC = CBD+ABD = 42+42= 84
Since it's a right triangle you can use the Pythagorean theorem or Trig (Soh Cah Toa).
I'll just use the Pythagorean theorem : a² + b² = c²
a = 9
b = x
c = 18
9² + x² = 18²
81 + x² = 324
x² = 324 - 81
x² = 243
x = √(243)
factor 243 to find a perfect square
x = √(3*81)
x = 9√(3)<u />
The y intercept is the value of y when x=0. Substituting we get
y = 4
Answer: 4
Answer:
1 008.56628 US$ kkkkkkkkkk
First, let's make these two into equations.
The first plan has an initial fee of $40 and costs an additional $0.16 per mile driven.
Our equation would then be
C = 40 + 0.16m
where C is the total cost, and m is the number of miles driven.
The second plan has an initial fee of $51 and costs an additional $0.11 per mile driven.
So, the equation is
C = 51 + 0.11m
where C is the total cost, and m is the number of miles driven.
Now, your question seems to be asking for one mileage for both, equalling one cost. I would go through all the steps I've taken to try and find this for you, but it would probably take hours to type out and read. In short, I'm not entirely sure that an answer like that is possible in this situation, simply because of the large difference in the initial fee of the two plans, along with the sparse common multiples between the two mileage costs.
